question
string | options
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A community has 30% below 15years of age and 10% over 65years of age. Dependency ratio is | [
"20%",
"40%",
"66.60%",
"3%"
] | Explanation:
Dependency ratio The propoion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependant On the economically productive age group (15-64 years). The ratio of the combined age groups 0-14 years plus 65 years and above to the 15-65 years age group is referred to as the total dependency ratio. It is also referred to as the societal dependency ratio and reflects the need for a society to provide for their younger and older population groups. The dependency ratio can be subdivided into young age dependency ratio (0-14 years); and old age dependency ratio (65 years and more). These ratios are, however, relatively crude, since they do not take into consideration elderly or young persons who are employed or working age persons who are unemployed. It is given by the formula : Thus, DR = 30%+10%/60% = 0.66 or 66.6% or 66 per 100 DR of 0.66 or 66/100 or 66% implies : 100 earning people in that community will have suppo 166 people (100 themselves and 66 Non-earning dependents on them) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 535 | c | 2 | medmcqa |
A 11-month-old child came for vaccination. He had received Polio vaccine & BCG at birth. What vaccines should be given to him now? | [
"BCG, OPV, Hep B",
"Measles, DPT, OPV, Hib, Hep B",
"DPT, OPV, Hib, Hep B",
"DPT, OPV, Hep B"
] | Explanation:
b. Measles, DPT, OPV, Hib, Hep B(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1546-1548, Ghai 8/e p 195, IAP 115)All the above vaccines should be given for catch up immunization now. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Most common bone affected by otosclerosis | [
"External auditory canal",
"Bony labyrinth",
"Mastoid process",
"None"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bony labyrinth Otosclerosis is a primary disease of the bony labyrinth. There is abnormal bone growth that causes hearing loss. There is altered bone remodeling. Normally, the typical human otic capsule remodeling rate is extremely low. In otosclerosis, normal inhibition of bone remodeling is lost resulting in foci of bone remodeling. When remodeled bone bridges the stapediovestibular joint, it fixates the joint and impedes sound transmission manifested as conductive hearing loss. The most common site of disease is promontory in the region of the anterior margin of oval window, and in advanced cases the stapes become ankylosed in position by a mass of new spongy bone. Other sites, which may be involved, are round window area, stapedial footplate, internal auditory canal, and semicircular canal. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Quiescent cells belong to which phase of cell cycle? | [
"G1",
"G0",
"M",
"S"
] | Explanation:
To achieve DNA replication and division, the cell goes through a tightly controlled sequence of events known as the cell cycle. The cell cycle consists of G1 (presynthetic), S (DNA synthesis), G2 (premitotic), and M (mitotic) phases. Quiescent cells that have not entered the cell cycle are in the G0 state. Ref: Robbins, 8th edition, Chapter 3. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Prevalence of disease is | [
"Rate",
"Ratio",
"Proportion",
"Deviation"
] | c | 2 | medmcqa |
|
Hepatotoxic drug used in tuberculosis is - | [
"Isoniazid",
"Streptomycin",
"Kanamycin",
"Ethambutol"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoniazid o Remember these important side effects of antitubercular drugs.HyperuricemiaPeripheral NeuropathyHepatitisOptic Neuritiso Ethambutolo Pyrazinamideo Streptomycino 1NHo Ethambutolo Ethionamideo Isoniazido Rifampicino Pyrazinamideo Ethionamideo Isoniazido Ethambutol | a | 0 | medmcqa |
FSH acts on which of the following: | [
"Granulosa cell",
"Theca interna",
"Endometrium",
"Myometrium"
] | Explanation:
A i.e. Granulosa cells | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Mechanism of hypokalemia in Gitelman syndrome is: | [
"Mineralocoicoid excess",
"Apparent mineralocoicoid excess",
"Distal delivery of non reabsorbed anions",
"Magnesium deficiency"
] | Explanation:
Hypokalemia is a feature of Gitelman's syndrome Mechanism: Mineralocoicoid excess Similar mechanism seen with Primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism Malignant hypeension Renin secreting tumors Renal aery stenosis Hypovolemia Bater's syndrome Apparent mineralocoicoid excess leads to hypokalemia in Liddle's syndrome 11 beta dehydrogenase-2 deficiency Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, page-352. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Rigid gas permeable lens are made of- | [
"Plymethymethacrylate",
"Hydroxymethylmethacrylate",
"Co polymer of PMMA, Silicon containing monomer & cellulose acetyl butyrate",
"Cellulose acetae Butyrate"
] | Explanation:
1. Hard lenses: Made of pokymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) 2. Rigid gas permeable (RGP) lenses: Copolymer of PMMA, silicon containing vinyl monomer & cellulose acetate butyrate (CAB) are used to manufacture RGP lenses. 3. Soft lenses: These are made up of hydroxymethymethacrylate (HEMA) | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Superficial perineal space contains - | [
"Membranous urethra",
"Artery of penis",
"Bulbourethral gland",
"Urethral artery"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Urethral artery o Repeat from All India Dec-15 | d | 3 | medmcqa |
A 60-year-old man with a known case of Hemochromatosis, cirrhosis and poal hypeension was brought to ED with altered mental status. Attendant describes that since the last 3 days ,the patient is confused , no h/o melena or hematemesis. For chronic ascites , diet control and spironolactone is given regularly . In the past he had an episode of variceal bleed for which he was put on propranolol and no episodes are seen since then. On examination he is not well oriented to time , place , but oriented to person .He is afebrile , vitals are stable , but ascites, asterixis, are notable. His laboratory investigation shows hemoglobin of 10.1 , Creatinine of 1.4 , and Blood urea nitrogen of 45. On paracentesis, clear fluid with 800 WBC (40% neutrophils) were seen. False statement regarding this condition: | [
"Ascites is preceded by infection",
"Clinical features are abdominal pain, fever, leucocytosis and altered mental status",
"Ascitic fluid protein of 1 gm/dl",
"Common organisms are Gram negative organisms"
] | Explanation:
SBP- severe complication of ascites characterized by spontaneous infection of the ascitic fluid without an intra-abdominal source. Fluid is a transudate due to cirrhosis protein is <2.5 g/dl. Patients with ascites may present with Fever Altered mental status Abdominal pain or discomfo Elevated WBC count Bacterial translocation -gut flora traversing the intestine into mesenteric lymph nodes, leading to bacteremia and seeding of the ascitic fluid. MC organisms- E. coli and other gut bacteria. Absolute neutrophil count >250/mL. Bedside cultures should be obtained when ascitic fluid is tapped Diagnosis: Ascitic tap having neutrophil count >250/mL is diagnostic Treatment: Cefotaxime (best drug) Prophylaxis: Required in a patient with an episode(s) of SBP or who had recovered. Once-weekly dosing of antibiotics. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
The following wound is not untidy | [
"Incised untidy wound",
"Crushed wound",
"Avulsed wound",
"Lacerated wound"
] | a | 0 | medmcqa |
|
23-year-old GIRO woman at 10 weeks' gestation presents to the obstetrics clinic for her initial evaluation. She says she has been hospitalized several times for asthma exacerbations but has never required intubation or admission to an intensive care unit. She is controlled on daily inhaled coicosteroids and albuterol with adequate relief of her symptoms. She Is concerned about taking these medications now that she is pregnant. Which of the following is true regarding asthma medications in pregnancy? | [
"B2 agonist are contraindicated during pregnancy",
"Both agonist and Inhaled coicosteroids are both contraindicated in pregnancy",
"Both B2 agonist and Inhaled coicosteroids are safe in pregnancy",
"B2 agonist and inhaled coicosteroids are both safe in pregnancy but during 2nd and 3rd trimester only"
] | Explanation:
Regular use of preventive steroid inhaler is first line maintenance or controller therapy for all those who requires a beta agonist inhaler more than once a day. Inhaled sho acting beta agonist is the rescue therapy of choice ,higher doses with nebuliser can be used for severe exacerbations. Refer page no 323 of text book of obteics,sheila balakrishnan2 nd edition. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Game Keeper's thumb is : | [
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of MCP joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of CMC joint",
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of CMC joint"
] | Explanation:
Injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint is commonly referred to as gamekeeper's thumb or skier's thumb.
Injury occurs by fall on hand with forceful radial and palmar adduction of thumb as seen in skiers.
It is the most common injury of MCP joint. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Two viral vaccines are expected to reduce the incidence of cancers. Which vaccines are these? | [
"Adenovirus and mumps virus vaccines",
"HAV and poliovirus vaccines",
"HPV 16/18 and hepatitis B vaccines",
"Measles virus and rubella virus vaccines"
] | Explanation:
HPV 16/18 and HBV (c) are implicated in cervical (and other genital) cancer and hepatocellular carcinoma, respectively. Thus, the vaccines against these agents are expected to reduce the incidence of these cancers. This has been seen in regions of the world where routine HBV vaccine is used at birth or shortly thereafter. The other vi ruses-adenovirus/mumps virus (a), HAV/poliovirus (b), measles virus/rubella virus (d), and rotavirus/VZV (e)-are not associated with cancers in humans, although adenoviruses cause cancer in some animals. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Acquired multistep drug resistance can be seen in all except: | [
"Erythromycin",
"Streptomycin",
"Tetracycline",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | Explanation:
Development of acquired resistance may be due to single-step mutation (as seen with streptomycin and rifampicin) or multi-step mutation (erythromycin, tetracycline and chloramphenicol). | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Following statements about sarcoidosis is false? | [
"Elevated level of angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE)",
"Bilateral parotid enlargement is the rule",
"Pleural effusion is common",
"Facial nerve palsy may be seen"
] | Explanation:
Answer is C (Pleural Effusion is common): Pleural Effusion is an uncommon atypical manifestation in Sarcoidosis repoed in up to 5 percent of patients. Parotid enlargement is a classic feature of Sarcoidosis and bilateral involvement is the rule. Neurological disease is repoed in 5-10 percent of patients with Sarcoidosis. Facial nerve palsy is the single most common neurological manifestation of Sarcoidosis seen in up to 50 percent of patients with Neurosarcoidosis. Angiotensin Conveing Enzyme (ACE) levels are raised in up to 60 percent ofpatients with acute disease and 20 percent of patients with chronic disease. Pleural Effusion and Cavitation are uncommon and atypical manifestations of Sarcoidosis `The pleura is involved in 1 to 5 percent of cases, almost always manifesting as a unilateral pleural e usion -Harrison `Pleural effusion can be seen in 1 to 2 percent ofpatients' - Imaging of Diffuse Lung Disease. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Methyl xanthines acts on | [
"Histamine receptors",
"Adenosine receptors",
"Mast cells",
"Cholinergic receptors"
] | Explanation:
(Adenosine receptors) (202-3-KDT) (220-KDT 6th)Mechanism of action of Methylxanthines - Three distinct cellular actions(a) Release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum especially in skeletal and cardiac muscle.(b) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase which degrades cyclic nucleotides intracellularly.ATPorGTPAdenylcyclase------------guanylcyclasecAMPorcGMPPhosphodiesterase--------------------Inhibited by Theophylline5 AMPor5 GMP(c) ** Blockade of adenosine receptors: adenosine acts as a local mediator in CNS, CVS and other organs- contracts smooth muscles, especially bronchial, dilates cerebral blood vessels, depresses cardiac pacemaker and inhibits gastric secretion. Methylxanthines produces opposite effects. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Bone within a Bone appearance is seen in: | [
"Osteo-necrosis",
"Osteoporosis",
"Osteopetrosis",
"Osteomyelitis"
] | Explanation:
Ans. (c) OsteopetrosisRef: Harrison 19th ed. /426e-4* Bone within a bone describes the bones that appear to have another bone within them.Causes: P.O.S.T-C.G.D# Paget's disease of bone# Osteopetrosis# Sickle cell disease# Thalassemia# Caffey's disease# Gaucher's disease# Growth recovery lines (after infancy)# Hypervitaminosis D | c | 2 | medmcqa |
If a 11 month old child has received two doses of DPT and polio, comes for fuher immunization after 5 months of the last dose, what should be done? | [
"Repeat the whole course",
"Repeat the 2nd dose and continue rest of the course",
"Give 3rd dose and continue the course",
"Give only booster dose"
] | Explanation:
Interruption of the schedule with a delay between doses does not interfere with the final immunity achieved. Booster dose is sufficient. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 134 | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Amplifier host is pig for - | [
"Japanese encephalitis",
"KFD",
"Yellow fever",
"West Nile fever"
] | Explanation:
Among the animal host pig have been incriminated as the major veebrae host for JE virus. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 261 | a | 0 | medmcqa |
A 15 year old female patient presents with pain in the calf muscles on exercise. Routine investigation reveals burgundy-colored urine (sample obtained after exercise). Histopathology of muscle shows deposits of glycogen in an excess amount. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Von Gierke's disease",
"Pompe's disease",
"McArdle's disease",
"Cori's disease"
] | Explanation:
Type V Glycogen Storage Disease (McArdle Disease)
Type V GSD is an autosomal recessive disorder.
Biochemical Defect:
Muscle Phosphorylase Defect.
The gene for muscle phosphorylase (PYGM) has been mapped to chromosome 11q13.
Lack of this enzyme limits muscle ATP generation by glycogenolysis, resulting in muscle glycogen accumulation, and is the prototype of muscle energy disorders.
Clinical Manifestations:
Symptoms usually 1st develop in late childhood or as an adult and are characterized by exercise intolerance with muscle cramps and pain.
Many patients experience a characteristic ‘second wind’ phenomenon. If they slow down or pause briefly at the 1st appearance of muscle pain, they can resume exercise with more ease.
About 50% of patients report burgundy-colored urine after exercise, which is the consequence of exercise-induced myoglobinuria, secondary to rhabdomyolysis.
Key Concept:
Burgundy-colored urine after exercise is the consequence of exercise-induced myoglobinuria, secondary to rhabdomyolysis. It occurs in Type V Glycogen Storage Disease (McArdle Disease).
Reference- Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 179 | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Which of the following statements about Total Infra–Venous Anaesthesia (TIVA) is true – | [
"Causes More Renal Toxicity",
"Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate",
"Risk of Malignant Hyperthermia is high",
"Inhibits Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasconstriction"
] | Explanation:
Total intravenous anaesthesia refers to a technique in general anaesthesia using a compination of agents given solely by IV route and in the absence of all inhalation agents.
TIVA (Total intravenous anaesthesia) is produced by IV propoful. Propofol decreases the cerebral metabolic rate.
Propofol does not impair renal function, does not trigger malignant hyperthermia and does not inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
A 7-year-old boy falls from a tree house and is brought to the emergency depament of a local hospital. On examination, he has weakness in rotating his arm laterally because of an injury of a nerve. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a loss of this nerve function? | [
"Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus",
"supracondylar fracture humerus",
"Knife wound on the teres major muscle",
"Inferior dislocation of the head of the humerus"
] | Explanation:
Inferior dislocation of the head of the humerus may damage the axillary nerve, which arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, runs through the quadrangular space accompanied by the posterior humeral circumflex vessels around the surgical neck of the humerus, and supplies the deltoid and teres minor, which are lateral rotators of the arm. Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus-branches of lateral cord are -musculocutaneous and lateral root of median nerve injury to these nerves doesn't affect lateral rotation. supracondylar fracture humerus -m/c nerve injured is anterior interocious nerve Knife wound on the teres major muscle- teres major is a medial rotator of shoulder | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Which of the following is absent in hemolytic anaemia? | [
"Increased indirect bilirubin",
"Jaundice",
"Increased reticulocyte count",
"Increased hematocrit"
] | Explanation:
Hemolytic anaemia
Increased indirect bilirubin
Jaundice
Decreased hematocrit | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis - | [
"Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000",
"Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%",
"Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children",
"The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough"
] | Explanation:
Pertussis (Whooping Cough):
Leukocytosis does not correlates with the severity of cough
Drug of choice: Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID X 10 days)
Vaccines:
DPT:
i. Killed acellular bacilli 20,000 million per dose (0.5 ml)
ii. Pertussis component leads to neurological complications after 2 years of age (@ 1 per 1,70,000 vaccinees)
iii. Vaccine efficacy is 50 – 60 % (2 doses) and 70% (3 doses)
Pertussis killed whole cell vaccine
DOC for cases and contacts: Erythromycin (for 10 days) | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Odour receptors are present in: | [
"Olfactory epithelium",
"Olfactory tract",
"Amygdala",
"Olfactory bulbs"
] | Explanation:
The Sense of Smell. Smell depends on sensory receptors that respond to airborne chemicals. In humans, these chemoreceptors are located in the olfactory epithelium -- a patch of tissue about the size of a postage stamp located high in the nasal cavity. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
The following are given intradermally EXCEPT: | [
"Test dose of drugs",
"Insulin",
"BCG vaccine",
"Mantoux test"
] | Explanation:
Insulin is given subcutaneously-so that the absorption is slow avoiding sudden hypoglycemia absorption is slow as fat is having less blood supply MMR vaccine, heparin, morphine are also given subcutaneously-into the fat layer of skin Pg.no.8 KD Tripathi Seventh edition | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Ist urge of micturition comes at | [
"50ml",
"150ml",
"250ml",
"350ml"
] | Explanation:
When 100-150 millilitres (3.5-5 ounces) of urine accumulate, the first sensations of a need to void are felt. The feeling increases in intensity as more urine accumulates, and it becomes uncomfoable at a bladder volume of 350-400 millilitres. Impulses from the pelvic nerves mediate the sensations of bladder filling, painful distension, and the conscious need to urinate. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:519,520,521 | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Basiliximab acts by antagonism against ? | [
"CD 25",
"CD 11a",
"TNF",
"All"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 25 o Basiliximab and daclizumab are mono-clonal antibodies against IL-2R (CD-25). | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Which of the following indicates a longer term nutritional status? | [
"Mid arm circumference",
"Height for age",
"Weight for age",
"Weight for height"
] | Explanation:
Height for age is considered the best indicator of long term nutritional status and best measure of cumulative growth retardation (stunting) Ref: Clinics, Stoves, and Ill-behaved Children: Essays in Health and Development Economics, ProQuest, 2008 - Pg 44; Disease And Moality in Sub-Saharan Africa, World Bank Publications, 2006 - Pg 90; Essential Pediatrics by O P Ghai 6th Edition, Page 101; Textbook of Social and Preventive medicine by Park 19th Edition, Page 434. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following statement is FALSE about Naltrexone ? | [
"Parenterally administered",
"Used to prevent relapse of heavy drinking",
"Long acting",
"Cause hepatotoxicity"
] | a | 0 | medmcqa |
|
All are symptoms of morphine withdrawal except? | [
"Mydriasis",
"Yawning",
"Lacrimation",
"Fall in BP"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fall in BP Morphine withdrawal Manifestations of morphine withdrawl Lacrimation Anxiety & fear Mydriasis Diarrhea Palpitation Sweating Restlessness Insomnia Dehydration Rapid weight loss Yawning Gooseflash (Piloerection) Abdominal colic Rise in BP Delirium and convulsions are not a characteristic features (contrast barbiturates) and are seen only occasionally. Treatment consists of withdrawl of morphine and substitution with oral methadone followed by gradual withdrawl of methodone. Recently the NMDA antagonists and nitric oxide synthatase inhibitors have been | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Venous air embolism is most common in which position in surgery - | [
"Sitting",
"Prone",
"Lateral",
"Lithotomy"
] | Explanation:
Ans, is 'a' i.e., Sitting o Venous air embolism is a potential hazard whenever the operative site is above the level of patients heart,o The 'sitting' position and its modification "beach chair" positions are associated with a greater incidence of venous air embolism. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
In the UIP blindness can be prevented by the administration of- | [
"Measles vaccines",
"Rubella vaccines",
"BCG vaccines",
"Diphtheria vaccines"
] | Explanation:
EPI launched by WHO includes immunisation against diphtheria, peussis, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis and measles.UIP in India contains 2 vital components. 1. Immunisation of pregnant women against tetanus. 2. Immunisation of children in their first age of life against the 6 EPI target disease. Children with measles may develop acute deficiency of vitamin A.,which may lead to keratomalacia and blindness from corneal scarring. So measles vaccine is given . Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 158,461 | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Human development index (HDI) includes all except- | [
"Adult literacy rate",
"Infant moality rate",
"Per capital",
"Life expectancy at bih"
] | Explanation:
.human developmemt index is defined as a composite index combining i9ndicators such as life expectancy at bih,adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling and income real GDP per capita . ref:parks textbook,22nd ed,pg no 16 | b | 1 | medmcqa |
A 56-year-old lady, who is a known case of lung cancer, presents with vomiting, headache and seizures. Investigations reveal serum osmolarity of 265 mosm/L (normal is 285-295 mosm/L) and a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L (normal value is 136-152 mEq/L). Urine osmolarity is greater than 100 mOsm/L She has normal water intake. Which of the following drugs is useful for this patient? | [
"Acetazolamide",
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Triamterene",
"Tolvaptan"
] | Explanation:
Hyponatremia, Hypoosmolarity and inability to form dilute urine in the fully hydrated condition with concomitant lung cancer points to suspicion of SIADH. Antagonists of ADH are used to treat SIADH Tolvaptan - It is a direct ADH receptor antagonist. It is used for the correction of water retention and hyponatremia occurring in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) as well as in advanced CHF. | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis – | [
"Candida",
"Mucor mycosis",
"Aspergillus",
"Histoplasma"
] | Explanation:
Amongst the given options candida and aspergillus cause a corneal ulcer.
Branched septate hyphae and involvement of cornea favour the diagnosis of aspergillus.
Candia will show yeast-like form and psedomycelia (not branched septate hyphae). | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Characterstic nail finding in lichen planus - | [
"Pitting",
"pterygium",
"Beau's Lines",
"Hyperpigmentation of nails"
] | Explanation:
NAIL CHANGES IN LICHEN PLANUS: 1.Early change- bluish red discolouration of proximal nail fold. 2.thinning of nail plate, koilonychia, longtudinal ridging, splitting(onychoschizia) 3. pterygium formation-wing shaped growth of proximal nail fold across the nail plate due to severe nail matrix involvement. it is a characteristic nail change in lichen planus 4. pup tent sign: proximal onycholysis with elevation of nail plate and longitudinal splitting ue to involvement of nail bed. 5. anonychia 6. melanonychia IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 1075 | b | 1 | medmcqa |
A 44-year-old female presents with recurrent severe headaches and increasing visual problems. Physical examination reveals her blood pressure to be 200/140. Her symptoms are most likely to be associated with | [
"Medial calcific sclerosis",
"Hyaline aeriolosclerosis",
"Thromboangiitis obliterans",
"Hyperplastic aeriolosclerosis"
] | Explanation:
Malignant hypeension refers to dramatic elevations in systolic and diastolic blood pressure often resulting in early death from cerebral and brainstem hemorrhages. Pathologically, the renal vessels demonstrate a concentric obliteration of aerioles by an increase in smooth-muscle cells, and protein deposition in a laminar configuration that includes fibrin material, which leads to total and subtotal occlusion of the vessels. These changes are called hyperplastic aeriolosclerosis. Medial calcific sclerosis (Monckeberg's aeriosclerosis) is characterized by dystrophic calcification in the tunica media of muscular aeries. There is no narrowing of the lumen of the affected vessels Hyaline aeriolosclerosis as seen in diabetes mellitus is presumably caused by leakage of plasma components across the endothelium Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease) is occlusion by a proliferative inflammatory process in aeries of heavy cigarette smokers. Hyperplastic aeriosclerosis Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition. | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Sclerotic bodies are seen in | [
"Sporothrix",
"Blastomycosis",
"Chromoblastomycosis",
"Coccidiodes"
] | Explanation:
Chromoblastomycosis - histologically the lesions shows the presence of the fungus as round or irregular dark brown yeast like bodies with septae called sclerotic bodies. Diagnosis can be established by demonstration of these sclerotic bodies in KOH mounts or in sections and by culture on SDA. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Painless ulcer of the tongue is due to - | [
"Dyspepsia",
"Syphilis",
"Tuberculosis",
"None of the above"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Syphilis | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following is seen in exit wound? | [
"Inverted margins",
"Beveled outer table",
"Dirt collar",
"Tattooing"
] | Explanation:
ANSWER: (B) Beveled outer tableREF: Textbook Of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice, By Vij, page 324 Entry woundExit woundSizeSmaller than bullet (when near), Larger than bullet (distant)Larger than bullet (when near), Smaller than bullet (distant)MarginsInvertedEvertedProtrusion of fatAbsentPresentHemorrhageLessMoreSkull boneBeveled inner tableBeveled outer tableSingeing, Blackening, Burning, Tattooing, Grease/dirt collarPresentAbsent | b | 1 | medmcqa |
The male sex hormone testosterone is produced by: | [
"Sertoli cells",
"Epithelial cells",
"Interstitial cells of leydig",
"Primitive germ cells"
] | c | 2 | medmcqa |
|
Which of the following incisions is taken for diaphragmatic surgery? | [
"Transverse",
"Veical",
"Radial",
"Circumferential"
] | Explanation:
Circumferential incisions in the periphery result in little loss of function. | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Most frequent causes of acute retention of urine include all except | [
"Meatal ulcer with scabbing in children",
"Haemorrhoidectomy",
"Herniorraphy",
"Fecal impaction"
] | Explanation:
Most frequent causes of Acute Urinary Retention Male Female Both(Males and females) Bladder outlet obstruction(MC) Urethral stricture Acute urethritis or prostatitis Phimosis Retroveed gravid Uterus Bladder neck obstruction (MC) Blood Clot Urethral calculus Rupture of urethra Neurogenic (injury or disease of the spinal cord) Smooth muscle cell dysfunction associated with ageing Fecal impaction Anal pain (Hemorrhoidectomy( Intensive post operative analgesic treatment Some drugs Spinal anaesthesia Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1426 | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Strongest force of bonding between retina and RPE – | [
"Vitreous gel pressure",
"Intraocular fluid pressure",
"RPE water transport",
"IPM"
] | Explanation:
Interphotorecepter matrix (IPM) is the most important bond between the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE) to the rest of the retina (through photoreceptor layer). | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Infected waste is disposed in which container? | [
"Red",
"Blue",
"Yellow",
"Black"
] | c | 2 | medmcqa |
|
Septal perforation is NOT a complication of which of the following condition? | [
"Septal abscess",
"Leprosy",
"Rhinophyma",
"Trauma"
] | Explanation:
Local trauma is known to be the most common cause of septal perforation. Rhinophyma refers to thickened, erythematous or purple hued nasal skin. It is not known to cause septal perforation. Complications associated with its use are nasal obstruction, skin cancers and tumors. Other causes of septal perforation includes: Trauma: Digital Post surgical Septal cauterization Following septal abscess Necrosis from cocaine use Infectious or inflammatory causes of septal perforation: Syphilis Leprosy Tuberculosis Wegener's granulomatosis Lupus erythematosus | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Theme: Tooth Preparation Procedures
A - Cingulum rest preparation
B - Composite restorations
C - Full-coverage crown
D - Guide plane preparation
E - Partial-coverage cast restoration
F - Tilting cast
For each of the following descriptions, choose the most appropriate preparation or procedure from the list above. You may use each option once, more than once or not at all.
1) Presence of deep hard tissue undercut associated with the anterior maxilla.
2) Modification of an unfavourable survey line, prior to recording a master impression.
3) Capacity to provide additional support and in certain circumstances indirect retention | [
"1F 2C 3B",
"1A 2B 3F",
"1A 2B 3C",
"1F 2B 3A"
] | d | 3 | medmcqa |
|
Bett's classification deals with ? | [
"Ocular trauma",
"Ocular foreign body",
"Squint",
"Maculopathy"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ocular trauma BETTS (Birmingham Eye Trauma Classification System) Ocular trauma classification group has organized eye injuries using standard technology to describe various forms of ocular injury. This is called BETTS - Birmingham Eye Trauma Classification System. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Which of the following is true for the ratio of fresh placental weight to infant weight in the last trimester of pregnancy? | [
"1:02",
"2:01",
"1:06",
"6:01"
] | Explanation:
Ans. C. 1:6The ratio of fresh placental weight to infant weight in the last trimester of pregnancy is 1:6. A very small placenta may be a result of chronic hypoxia while a large placenta may be because of maternal diabetes. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
A newborn has fused eyes and single nasal chamber & undeveloped callosum. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Holoprosencephaly",
"Schizencephaly",
"Plagiocephaly",
"Brachycephaly"
] | Explanation:
Holoprosencephaly: brain doesn't properly divide into right and left hemispheres. Associated with trisomy 13 (MC), trisomy 18, CHARGE syndrome Schizencephaly- characterized by abnormal slits or clefts in the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. Plagiocephaly- characterized by an asymmetrical distoion (flattening of one side) of the skull. Brachycephaly- result of premature synostosis of both coronal sutures. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
First enzyme to be raised in MI is ? | [
"CPK-MB",
"LDH",
"Myoglobin",
"Troponin-I"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myoglobin | c | 2 | medmcqa |
In vitro test for enterotoxin - | [
"Mac Conckey's culture",
"Blood agar culture",
"Rabbit ileal loop culture",
"None"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., None . MacConKey's and blood agar culture are not used for detection of enterotoxin. . Rabbit ileal loop culture is in vivo test (not in vitro) | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Substance which binds to substrate other than catalytic enzyme is ? | [
"Competitive inhibitor",
"Non-competitive inhibitor",
"Reversible inhibitor",
"None of the above"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Non-competitive inhibitor Non-competitive inhibitor In this type of inhibition no competition occurs between substrate and inhibitor. Inhibitor is structurally different from substrate and binds to enzyme at a site other than the substrate binding (catalytic) site. Occupancy of this site by the inhibitor alters the shape of the enzyme such that its catalytic activity is reduced or lost. The substrate is still able to bind the enzyme, but the enzyme cannot catalyze the reaction when inhibitor is bound. Thus, the non-competitive inhibitor does not block the active site of enzyme, but behaves as though it were removing active enzyme from the solution. Evidently, unlike competitive inhibition, increasing the substrate concentration does not reverse the inhibition. Non-competitive inhibition may be reversible or irreversible. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Professional misconduct - | [
"Association with non medical persons in medical procedures",
"Dichotomy",
"Issuing false ceificate",
"All of the above"
] | Explanation:
Professional misconduct is any conduct of the doctor which might reasonably be regarded as disgraceful or dishonorable. Conduct is judged by professional men of good repute and competence. The doctor may get a warning notice and his name can be erased from Medical Register if guilty. These offenses include mnemonic 6 A's 1 D. Adultery, unlawful Aboion, Adveising, Association with unqualified persons in professional matters, Addiction, Alcohol, and Dichotomy or fee splitting. REF: Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 29th edition Pg.15. | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Statistical test used to relate two group values/ differences? | [
"Kruskal Wallis",
"Spearman correlation",
"Kendall tau",
"Chi square"
] | d | 3 | medmcqa |
|
Pearl Index is a measure of : | [
"Potency of contraceptives",
"Feility rate",
"Potency of disinfectant",
"Couple protection rate"
] | Explanation:
Potency of contraceptives | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Anxiety is | [
"Neurosis",
"Psychosis",
"Personality disorder",
"None"
] | Explanation:
In ICD-10, neurosis, stress-related and somatoform disorders have been classified into the following types: Phobic anxiety disorders Other anxiety disorders Obsessive-compulsive disorders (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no 89) | a | 0 | medmcqa |
The natural history of disease is best established by: | [
"Randomized control trials",
"Clinical trials",
"Descriptive studies",
"Coho studies"
] | Explanation:
The Natural history of disease is best established by coho studies. COHO STUDY: Forward looking study Prospective study Cause to effect study Risk factor to disease study Exposure to outcome study Follow-up study Incidence study | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Common injury to baby is: | [
"Fracture humerus",
"Fracture clavicle",
"Fracture",
"Fracture femur"
] | Explanation:
B i.e. Clavicle | b | 1 | medmcqa |
A 55-year-old known smoker for 25 years presents with a low pitched voice. Endoscopy shows a mass limited to the vocal cord on the left. A biopsy is suggestive of laryngeal cancer type T1N0. Treatment of choice would be - | [
"Vertical partial hemilaryngectomy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Total laryngectomy with cervical lymph node dis section"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Radiotherapy Treatment of glottic cancero Stage-dependent treatment include:-i) Carcinoma in situ (CIN):- Best treated by transoral endoscopic CO2 laser. If the laser is not available stripping of vocal cord is done and the tissue is sent for biopsy. If the biopsy shows invasive carcinoma, radiotherapy is given otherwise regular follow up is done?ii) T1 carcinoma:- Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice. Surgery is used only after they recur.# T1 carcinoma with extension to anterior commissure:- The treatment of choice is radiotherapy. If it is unavailable, frontolateral partial laryngectomy is done with regular follow up. If it fails, total laryngectomy is performed.# T1 Ca with extension to arytenoid:- Treatment is same as above but surgery is preferrediii) T2 carcinoma:- Treatment depends on- i) Mobility of vocal cords, and ii) Involvement of anterior commissure and/or arytenoid:a) If the mobility of the cord is not impaired (cord is mobile) and anterior commissure and/or arytenoid not involved.# Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice. In case of recurrence total laryngectomy or partial vertical laryngectomy is doneb) If the mobility of cord is impaired or anterior commissure and/or arytenoid involved:- Voice preserving conservative surgery such as vertical hemilaryngectomy or frontolateral laryngectomy is done. Total laryngectomy is done if there is recurrence on follow up.iv) T3 and T4 carcinoma:- Total laryngectomy is the treatment of choice; combined with neck dissection if the nodes are palpable. More advanced lesions are treated by combined therapy, i.e., surgery with postoperative radiotherapy. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Miyagawa body is characteristically seen in | [
"Kala azar",
"Syphilis",
"Granuloma inguinale",
"LGV"
] | Explanation:
(D) LGV # MIYAGAWA BODIES:> Chlamydia trachomatis (Miyagawa Nella lymphogranulomatosis), the elementary bodies that develop in the intracytoplasmic mi- crocolonies of Lymphogranuloma Venereum.> Lab diagnosis of LGV (Lymphogranuloma Venereum):> The primary lesion usually goes unnoticed and the disease is seen commonly first in the stage of inguinal adenitis (bubo).> Smears of material aspirated from the buboes may show the elementary bodies (Miyazawa's granular corpuscles).> The sensitivity of microscopic diagnosis is very low.> Isolation of the chlamydia by intracerebral inoculation into mice and into yolk sac of eggs has been replaced by cell cultures.> LGV patients develop high titres of circulating antibodies, with titres of 1:64 or more in CF test and 1:512 or more in micr - IF.> Serological diagnosis is therefore feasible. An intradermal test originally described by Frei in 1825 was commonly used formerly. | d | 3 | medmcqa |
An asthmatic patient is taken into the OT for removal of a tumor from colon. Which of the following anaesthetic agent is preferred in this patient? | [
"Ether",
"Ketamine",
"TCE",
"N20"
] | Explanation:
Ventilatory drive is minimally affected by induction doses of ketamine, although rapid intravenous bolus administration or combinations of ketamine with opioids occasionally produce apnea. Racemic ketamine is a potent bronchodilator, making it a good induction agent for asthmatic patients. Ref: Butterwoh IV J.F., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D. (2013). Chapter 9. Intravenous Anesthetics. In J.F. Butterwoh IV, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick (Eds), Morgan&Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5e. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Initiation of visual impulse is associated with: | [
"Condensation of opsin with vitamin A aldehyde",
"Photoisomerization and hydrolysis of visual purple",
"INADP",
"I NAD"
] | Explanation:
When light falls on rhodopsin, it is absorbed by rhodopsin causing isomerization of the retinaldehyde from 11-cis to all-trans form, and a conformational change in opsin. This results in the release of retinaldehyde from the protein, and the initiation of a nerve impulse. The final step is hydrolysis to release all-trans-retinaldehyde and opsin. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 28th Edition, Page 44 | b | 1 | medmcqa |
The angle of divergence in the preparation of cast-metal intracoronal restorations: | [
"2-5 degrees per wall",
"2-5 degrees",
"10-15 degrees per wall",
"12 degrees per wall"
] | Explanation:
Cast-metal intracoronal restorations, referred to as inlay restorations, rely on diverging vertical walls that are almost parallel and a luting cement to provide retention of the casting in the tooth . During the initial tooth preparation, the preparation walls are designed not only to provide for draw (for the casting to be placed into the tooth) but also to provide for an appropriate small angle of divergence (2–5 degrees per wall) from the line of draw (to enable retention of the luted restoration). The path of draw is usually designed to be perpendicular to the horizontal features of the preparation.
Reference: Sturdevant operative dentistry. 7th edition pg no 128 | a | 0 | medmcqa |
The membranous pa of the atrio ventricular pa of interventricular septum is between? | [
"RA & LV",
"LV & RV",
"RA & RV",
"LA & LV"
] | Explanation:
A i.e. RA & LV | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Larva found in muscle is : | [
"Trichinella spiralis",
"Ankylostoma duodenale",
"Trichuris trichura",
"Enterobius vermicularis"
] | Explanation:
Ans is 'a' i.e. Trichinella SpiralisIn Trichinella spiralis -Infection occurs after - ingestion of encysted larva in pork meat. After ingestion cysts travel to small intestine where larva leaves the cyst and mature into mating adults.Following mating female produce thousands of larvae. The larvae then enters blood stream and spread to organs and skeletal muscle. The larvae then become encysted in skeletal muscle where they may last for decades.In Ankylostoma DuodenaleInfection occurs by penetration of larvae through skinLarvae goes into the lung, coughed up, swallowed and goes into the intestine where it matures.There is no stage where larvae goes to muscles.In Trichuris trichuria & Enterobius Vermicularisthere is no tissue invasion at any stage of life cycle in man.Infection occurs by ingestion of eggs through contaminated food. The eggs hatch in GIT and migrate to caecum and ascending large intestine where they mature. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Frisch bacillus affects most commonly | [
"Mouth",
"Nose",
"Eye",
"Ear"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nose | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Common pathological changes seen in the kidney in benign hypeension are- | [
"Fibronoid necrosis",
"Microaneurysm",
"Hyaline aeriosclerosis",
"Thining of walls"
] | Explanation:
Microscopically there is a narrowing of the lumens of the aerioles and small aeries, caused by thickening and hyalinization of the walls (hyaline aeriolosclerosis). In addition, interlobular and arcuate aeries show medial hyperophy, replication of internal elastic lamina, all of which narrow the lumen. Parenchymal changes: As a consequence of ischemia, there is a variable degree of atrophy of parenchyma. This includes glomerular shrinkage, eposition of collagen in Bowman's space, periglomerular fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and fine interstitial fibrosis. From Textbook of pathology Harsh Mohan 7th edition, pg no:678, Pathologic basis of disease Robbins South Asian edition(9), pg no:938,939 | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Following is true of pyonephrosis except: | [
"Commonly associated with renal calculi",
"Always unilateral",
"Is a complication of hydronephrosis",
"Follows acute pyelonephritis"
] | Explanation:
Ans. (b) Always unilateralRef: Smith 17th Edition, Pages 204-206# In pyonephrosis kidney is a bag of pus.# Most common cause is stones followed by Infected hydronephrosis and acute pyelonephritis# Mostly unilateral but can be bilateral also# Percutaneous nephrostomy is the initial treatment# Subcapsular nephrectomy is needed sometimes. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following is the most common complication of asymptomatic atrial fibrillation? | [
"Sudden death",
"Stroke",
"Shock",
"Pulmonary Embolism"
] | Explanation:
In choosing to treat a patient who has atrial fibrillation with oral anticoagulants, the balance of risks and benefits needs to be considered. Assessment of patients for these risk factors can be used to decide who should be treated with warfarin. There is a fourfold increase in the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. CHADS2 is a modified stroke risk classification that integrates the above schemes. Congestive hea failure (C), hypeension (H), age greater than 75 years (A) and diabetes (D) are each assigned one point. Patients with previous stroke (S) are assigned two points. The CHADS2 risk assessment assists in determining the approach to antithrombotic treatment Anticoagulants are the treatment of choice in patients with atrial fibrillation and prior stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Ref: 1. Taylor R.D., Asinger R.W. (2009). Chapter 29. Long-Term Anticoagulation for Cardiac Conditions. In M.H. Crawford (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Cardiology, 3e. 2. Easton JD et al. Apixaban compared with warfarin in patients with atrial fibrillation and previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack: A subgroup analysis of the ARISTOTLE trial. Lancet Neurol 2012;11:503. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Anterior compartment of leg contains all muscle except - | [
"Peroneus brevis",
"Peroneus tertius",
"Extensor hallucis longus",
"Tibialis anterior"
] | Explanation:
Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis are present in lateral compartment of leg.
Peroneus tertius, tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus are present in anterior compartment of leg. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Nevirapine belongs to: September 2010, March 2013 | [
"Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor",
"Protease inhibitor",
"Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor",
"None of the above"
] | Explanation:
Ans. C: Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNI) used to treat HIV-1 infection and AIDS | c | 2 | medmcqa |
A patient presenting with tense bullae on erythematous base. On histopathological examination following can be seen? | [
"Subcorneal split",
"Sub epidermal split",
"Fishnet pattern",
"Raw of tomb stones appearance"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sub epidermal split * Tense bullae on erythematous base on erythematous base are characteristic presentation of bullous pemphigoid. Bullous pemphigoid is a sub epidermal blistering disorder.* Characteristic histopathological finding of BP is sub epidermal split with relatively normal epidermis and mixed inflammatory infiltrate consisting of numerous eosinophils, mononuclear cells and few neutrophills. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)? | [
"Auer rods",
"Basophilia",
"Increased LAP score",
"Bone marrow fibrosis"
] | Explanation:
Characteristic features of CML are massive splenomegaly, hyperleucocytosis, peripheral blood Basophilia & Philadelphia Chromosome/ t(9;22). | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Highest calcium Concentration is present in | [
"Dates",
"Guava",
"Amla",
"Halibut Liver oil"
] | a | 0 | medmcqa |
|
Which of the following is height independent index - | [
"Ponderal",
"Brocas",
"Corpulence",
"Lorent'z"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corpulence index Different indices use to determine obesity are:A. Body mass index/Qnetelet's index - FAO/WHO recommends it's use internationally as reference standard for assessing the prevalence of obesity in a community . | c | 2 | medmcqa |
A 50 years old male patient travels alone in a remote village of Rajasthan was not on any food or water for the past 24 hours. Urine osmolality is 1150 mOsm/Kg. The major site of water reabsorption is | [
"Proximal tubule",
"Henle's loop",
"Distal tubule",
"Medullary collecting duct"
] | Explanation:
Answer: a) Proximal tubuleWater Transport along the NephronSegmentPercentage of Filtrate ReabsorbedMechanism of Water ReabsorptionHormones That Regulate Water PermeabilityProximal tubule67%PassiveNoneLoop of Henle15%Descending thin limbonly; passiveNoneDistal tubule0%No water reabsorptionNoneLate distal tubule and collecting duct~8%-17%PassiveADH, ANP, BNP*Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides inhibit antidiuretic hormone-stimulated water permeability | a | 0 | medmcqa |
This appearance in a 60-year-old man is suggestive of: | [
"Eosinophilic granuloma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Acromegaly"
] | Explanation:
Ans. B Multiple myelomaRadiograph of skull shows multiple punched out uniform lytic lesions - peculiar of Multiple myeloma - described as Rain drop skullQ. Other imaging signs include Salt pepper appearance of vertebraQ on MRI/Vertebra planaQ/Wrinkled vertebraQ. Lesions show cold spots on 99m - Tc - MDP bone scanQ. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Change in the diastolic BP upon standing comes back to normal within | [
"15-30 sec",
"30-60 sec",
"60-90 sec",
"90-120sec"
] | Explanation:
In standing poster diastolic BP increases Upon standing peripheral pooling of blood independent pas occur sudden standing increases DBP,if recorded within 30 to 60 seconds of change in posture after that it comes back to normal where the operation of baroreceptor reflex. Ref: page no-351 Textbook of physiology Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Most common organism isolated in breast abscess patients | [
"Streptococcus",
"Staphylocoeus aureus",
"Klebsiella",
"None"
] | Explanation:
Ans. (b) Staphylocoeus aureus (Ref Schwartz 10th edition Page 506)* MC organism causing mastitis - Staphylococcus aureus > Streptococcus* Zuska's Disease: RecurrentPeriductal mastitis seen in Smokers. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following DPP IV inhibitors does not require dose modification in Chronic kidney disease patients | [
"Sitagliptin",
"Vildagliptin",
"Linagliptin",
"All of the above"
] | Explanation:
Linagliptin is is DPP IV inhibitors does not require dose modifications in Chronic kidney disease patients and can be used even in stage 5 ckd patients . | c | 2 | medmcqa |
The most characteristic histological finding of acute rheumatic carditis is - | [
"Fibrinous pericarditis",
"Vegetations on mitral valve leaflets",
"Aschoff bodies in myocardium",
"Increased vascularity of the valves"
] | c | 2 | medmcqa |
|
According to the transplantation of Human organs act 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty | [
"Less than I year",
"Less than 2 year",
"2 to 5 years",
"More than 5 years"
] | Explanation:
C ie 2-5 years If a doctor is found guilty for unauthorized removal of human organ, or for commercial dealings etc, he can be punished with imprisonment up to 5 years and fine of 10000 Rs and removal of name from register of state medical council for 2 year for first offence and permanently for subsequent offence (according to the transplantation of human organs act 1994). But a/t 2011 Amendment the punishment has become imprisonment upto 10 years with fine extending upto 20 lakh Rs and removal of name from register of state medical council for a period of 3 years for first offence and permanently for subsequent offence. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
Pneumoretinopexy is an outpatient procedure in which retinal detachment is sealed with air insufflation. Which of the following gas is used in pneumorctinopexy? | [
"Sulfur hexafluoride",
"Carbon dioxide",
"Nitrous oxide",
"Oxygen"
] | Explanation:
Ans. a. Sulfur hexafluoride (Ref: Kanski 3rd/305, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> -PDF/ Pneumatic- Retinopexy.pdf)Sulfur hexafluoride gas is used in pneumoretinopexy."Choices of the agent for intraocular tamponade include air, sulfur hexafluoride, perfluoro- ethane , and perfluoropropane.Perfluoroethane has the characteristics that match these criteria the best, but it has not been approved by the FDA for clinical use. In contrast, both sulfur hexafluoride and perfluoropropane have been approved by the FDA for clinical use. By default, sulfur hexafluoride has become the gas of choice used most frequently by most surgeons for pneumatic retinopexy. "- http //www. insightinstruments.com/PDF/Papers-PDF/Pneumatic-Retinopexy.pdfPneumatic RetinopexyChoices of the agent for intraocular tamponade include air, sulfur hexafluorideQ, perfluoro- ethane, and perfluoropropane.Periluoroethane has the characteristics that match these criteria the best, but it has not been approved by the FDA for clinical use,In contrast, both sulfur hexafluoride and perfluoropropane have been approved by the FDA for clinical use.The long duration of perfluoropropane is advantageous for selected cases that require prolonged gas tamponade. Because of its greater expansion, only a small volume of perfluoropropane is required.However, many surgeons consider the long duration of perfluoropropane to be excessive, causing unnecessary delay in the resumption of normal activities and traveling for the patient.By default, sulfur hexafluoride has become the gas of choice used most frequently by most surgeons for pneumatic retinopexyQ. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
Cellulose is a: | [
"Fructose polymer",
"Non-starch polysaccharide",
"Starch polysaccharide",
"Glycosaminoglycan"
] | Explanation:
Option b : Cellulose is a non-starch homopolysaccharide Cellulose unbranched, non-starch homopolysaccharide It is made up of glucose molecules linked by beta (1- 4) glucosidic linkages (see fig). This linkage can't be broken down by any human enzyme due to beta anomerism at C-1. Intestinal bacteria ferments cellulose to sho-chain fatty acid (Butyrate). The most abundant organic molecule on Eah (Second most abundant is Chitin). Cellulose is present in the cell walls of plants and other organisms Starch storage polysaccharide of plants consisting of both linear and branched chain glucose molecules. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Skin grafting is absolutely C/I in which skin infection? | [
"Staphylococus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Streptococus",
"Proteus"
] | Explanation:
Ans is 'c' i.e. Streptococcus "The skin graft generally survives when placed over the wounds containing less than 105 organisms per gram of tissue unless the organisms are streptococci, which can rapidly dissolve transplanted skin." - S. Das 3/e, p 142 | c | 2 | medmcqa |
A 12 year old female patient complains of multiple missing teeth. The karyogram of the patient is shown below. Intra-oral findings include missing 12, 17, 33 and 43.
Open bite, macroglossia and generalised periodontitis is also present. Which of the following is commonly seen in this condition? | [
"Mouth breathing",
"Prognathic maxilla",
"Macrodontia",
"High level of caries"
] | Explanation:
Patient is suffering from Down's syndrome (trisomy of chromosome No. 21).
Skeletal findings are an underdeveloped mid-face, creating a prognathic occlusal relationship.
Oral findings include mouth breathing, open bite, appearance of macroglossia, fissured lips and tongue, angular cheilitis, delayed eruption times, missing and malformed teeth, oligodontia, small roots, microdontia, crowding, and a low level of caries.
Children with Down syndrome experience a high incidence of rapid, destructive periodontal disease, which may be related to local factors such as tooth morphology, bruxism, malocclusion, and poor oral hygiene. | a | 0 | medmcqa |
A 45-year-old female is diagnosed as a case of pneumococcal meningitis. Her blood sample were sent for culture sensitivity. In the mean time best drug to sta as an empirical treatment is | [
"Penicillin G",
"Doxycycline",
"Streptomycin",
"Vancomycin + ceftriaxone"
] | Explanation:
Ans. d. Vancomycin + ceftriaxone Antimicrobial therapy of pneumoeoccal meningitis is initiated with a cephalosporin (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or cefepime) and vancomycin. "Antimicrobial therapy ofpneumococcal meningitis is initiated with a cephalosporin (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or cefepime) and vancomycin. For S. pneumoniae meningitis, an isolate of S. pneumoniae is considered to be susceptible to penicillin with a minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)1.0 mg/mL. Isolates of S. pneumoniae that have cephalosporin MICs2 mg/mL are considered resistant. For meningitis due to pneumococci, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone MICs1 mg/mL, vancomycin is the antibiotic of choice. Rifampin can be added to vancomycin for its synergistic effect but is inadequate as monotherapy because resistance develops rapidly when it is used alone. "- "A 2-week course of intravenous antimicrobial therapy is recommended for pneumococcal meningitis." "Patients with penicillin- and cephalosporin-resistant strains of S. pneumoniae who do not respond to intravenous vancomycin alone may benefit from the addition of intraventricular vancomycin. The intraventricular route of administration is preferred over the intrathecal route because adequate concentrations of vancomycin in the cerebral ventricles are not always achieved with intrathecal administration."- Antimicrobial Therapy of CNS Bacterial Infections Based on Pathogens Organism Antibiotic Neisseria meningitides Penicillin-sensitive Penicillin G or ampicillinQ Penicillin-resistant Ceftriaxone or cefotaximeQ Streptococcus pneumoniae Penicillin-sensitive Penicillin GQ Penicillin-intermediate Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime or cefepime Penicillin-resistant (Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime or cefepime) vancomycinQ Gram-negative bacilli (except Pseudomonas spp.) Ceftriaxone or cefotaximeQ Pseudomonas aeruginosa Ceftazidime or cefepime or meropenemQ Staphylococci spp. Methicillin-sensitive NafcillinQ Methicillin-resistant VancomycinQ Listeria monocytogenes Ampicillin + gentamicinQ Haemophilus influenzae Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime or cefepimeQ Streptococcus agalactiae Penicillin G or ampicillinQ Bacteroides fragilis MetronidazoleQ Fusobacterium spp. MetronidazoleQ | d | 3 | medmcqa |
A 72-year-old woman has had difficulty with vision in her right eye for 3 months. She also has pain in the right upper chest. The findings on physical examination include unilateral enophthalmos, miosis, anhidrosis, and ptosis on the right side of her face. A chest radiograph shows right upper lobe opacification and bony destruction of the right first rib. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present in her? | [
"Bronchopneumonia",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Bronchogenic carcinoma",
"Sarcoidosis"
] | Explanation:
Horner syndrome is a result of sympathetic autonomic nerve involvement by invasive pulmonary carcinoma. Such a neoplasm in this location with these associated findings is called a Pancoast tumor. Infectious processes such as pneumonia are unlikely to impinge on structures outside the lung. Bronchiectasis destroys bronchi within the lung. Sarcoidosis can result in marked hilar adenopathy with a mass effect, but involvement of the peripheral nervous system is unlikely. Likewise, tuberculosis is a granulomatous disease that can lead to hilar adenopathy, although usually without destruction of extrapulmonary tissues. | c | 2 | medmcqa |
What is the composition of this stone? | [
"Calcium oxalate monohydrate",
"Calcium oxalate dihydrate",
"Ammonium urate",
"Calcium oxalate"
] | Explanation:
- Stone has spikes. This stone is known as JACK STONE.- Most commonly found in urinary bladder- Composition is calcium oxalate dihydrate | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Which of the following form of Vitamin A has maximum effects on DNA? | [
"Isoretinal",
"Isoretinoic acid",
"Retinaldehyde",
"Retinol"
] | Explanation:
Ans. B. Isoretinoic acid. (Ref Harrison 18th/Ch. 74; 17th/pg. 446-447; Guyton Physiology 11thtpg. 629)In pregnancy, the daily dose of vitamin A should not exceed 3 mg. Commercially available retinoid derivatives are also toxic, including 13-cis-retinoic acid, which has been associated with birth defects. As a result, contraception should be continued for a least 1 year, and possibly longer, in women who have taken 13-cis retinoic acid.Vitamin A# In the strictest sense, refers to retinol.# However, the oxidized metabolites, retinaldehyde and retinoic acid, are also biologically active compounds. The term retinoids includes all molecules (including synthetic molecules) that are chemically related to retinol.# Retinaldehyde (11-cis) is the essential form of vitamin A that is required for normal vision, whereas retinoic acid is necessary for normal morphogenesis, growth, and cell differentiation. Retinoic acid does not function in vision and, in contrast to retinol, is not involved in reproduction.# Vitamin A also plays a role in iron utilization, humoral immunity, T cell-mediated immunity, natural killer cell activity, and phagocytosis. Vitamin A is commercially available in esterified forms (e.g., acetate, palmitate) since it is more stable as an ester.# ?-Carotene is the most prevalent carotenoid in the food supply that has provitamin A activity. It is now estimated that 12 ?g or greater of dietary ?-carotene is equivalent to 1 ?g of retinol, whereas 24 ?g or greater of other dietary provitamin A carotenoids (e.g., cryptoxanthin, ?-carotene) is equivalent to 1 ?g of retinol.# Retinoic acid is a ligand for certain nuclear receptors that act as transcription factors. Two families of receptors (RAR and RXR receptors) are active in retinoid-mediated gene transcription.# Vitamin A is needed to form the visual pigments and, therefore, to prevent night blindness.# Vitamin A is also necessary for normal growth of most cells of the body and especially for normal growth and proliferation of the different types of epithelial cells. When vitamin A is lacking, the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized.# Vitamin A deficiency manifests itself bx:(1) scaliness of the skin and sometimes acne;(2) failure of growth of young animals, including cessation of skeletal growth;(3) failure of reproduction, associated especially with atrophy of the germinal epithelium of the testes and sometimes with interruption of the female sexual cycle; and(4) keratinization of the cornea, with resultant corneal opacity and blindness.# In vitamin A deficiency, the damaged epithelial structures often become infected, for example, the conjunctivae of the eyes, the linings of the urinary tract, and the respiratory passages. Vitamin A has been called an "anti-infection" vitamin.# Toxicity# Acute toxicity of vitamin A was first noted in Arctic explorers who ate polar bear liver and has also been seen after administration of 150 mg in adults or 100 mg in children.# Acute toxicity is manifested by increased intracranial pressure, vertigo, diplopia, bulging fontanels in children, seizures, and exfoliative dermatitis; it may result in death. In children being treated for vitamin A deficiency according to the protocols outlined above, transient bulging of fontanels occurs in 2% of infants, and transient nausea, vomiting, and headache occur in 5% of preschoolers.# Chronic vitamin A intoxication is largely a concern in industrialized countries and has been seen in normal adults who ingest 15 mg/d and children who ingest 6 mg/d of vitamin A over a period of several months. Manifestations include dry skin, cheilosis, glossitis, vomiting, alopecia, bone demineralization and pain, hypercalcemia, lymph node enlargement, hyperlipidemia, amenorrhea, and features of pseudotumor cerebri with increased intracranial pressure and papilledema. Liver fibrosis with portal hypertension and bone demineralization may result from chronic vitamin A intoxication. When vitamin A is provided in excess to pregnant women, congenital mal- formations have included spontaneous abortions, craniofacial abnormalities, and valvular heart disease.# High doses of carotenoids do not result in toxic symptoms but should be avoided in smokers due to an increased risk of lung cancer. Carotenemia, which is characterized by a yellowing of the skin (creases of the palms and soles) but not the sclerae, may be present after ingestion of >30 mg of ?-carotene daily. Hypothyroid patients are particularly susceptible to the development of carotenemia due to impaired breakdown of carotene to vitamin A. Reduction of carotenes from the diet results in the disappearance of skin yellowing and carotenemia over a period of 30-60 days.Human teratogenic drugsDrugAbnormalityThalidomidePhocomelia, Multiple defectsAnticancer drugs (methotrexate)Cleft palate, hydrocephalus, multiple defects, foetal deathAndrogensVirilization; limb, esophageal, cardiac defectsProgestinsVirilization of female foetusStiboestrolVaginal carcinoma in teenage female offspringTetracyclinesDiscoloured and deformed teeth, retarded bone growthWarfarinDepressed nose; eye and hand defects, growth retardationPhenytoinHypoplastic phalanges, sleft lip/palate, microcephalyPheenobarbitoneVariousmalformationsCarbamazepineNeural tube defects, other abnormalitiesValproate sodSpina bifida and other neural tube defectsAlcoholLow IQ baby, growth retardation, foetal alcohol syndromeACE inhibitorsHypoplasia of organs, growth retardation, foetal lossLithiumFoetal goiter, cardiac and other abnormalitiesAntithyroid drugsFoetal goiter and hypothyroidismIndomethacin/aspirinPremature closure of ductus arteriosusIsotretinoinCraniofacial, heart and CNS defects. | b | 1 | medmcqa |
The inhalational bronchodilator with long duration of action is: | [
"Salbutamol",
"Theophylline",
"Ipratropium bromide",
"Tiotropium bromide"
] | Explanation:
Tiotropium bromide :
A newer congener of ipratropium bromide which binds very tightly to bronchial M1 / M3 muscarinic receptors producing long lasting bronchodilatation.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 128 | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Reward center is located in ? | [
"Cerebellum",
"Amygdala",
"Hippocampus",
"Hypothalamus"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypothalamus | d | 3 | medmcqa |
Presence of trifluroacetic acid (TFA) in urine indicates that volatile anaesthetic agent used was | [
"Halothane",
"Methoxyflurane",
"Trichloroethylene",
"None of the above"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halothane | a | 0 | medmcqa |
All are features of hemolytic anemia, except ? | [
"Hemoglobinuria",
"Jaundice",
"Increased haptoglobulin",
"Hemosiderinuria"
] | Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increase haptoglobulin | c | 2 | medmcqa |
All are seen in congestive cardiac failure except – | [
"Kerley B lines",
"Prominent lower lobe vessel",
"Pleural effusions",
"Cardiomegaly"
] | Explanation:
There are prominent upper lobe vessels (not lower lobe) due to PVH.
CHF (LVF) presents radiologically with cardiomegaly and signs of pulmonary venous hypertension (see above explanation for signs of PVH). | b | 1 | medmcqa |
Enzyme replacement therapy is not available for? | [
"Gaucher's disease",
"Tay sach disease",
"Pompe's disease",
"Hurler syndrome"
] | Explanation:
Impoant diseases for which enzyme replacement therapy is available are :-Gaucher's diseaseMaroteaux Lamy syndrome (mucopolysaccharidosis VI)Hurler syndrome (mucopolysaccharidosis I)Fabry's diseaseHunter syndrome (mucopolysaccharidosis II)Pompe's disease (Type II glycogenosis) | b | 1 | medmcqa |
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