question
string | options
list | rationale
string | label
string | label_idx
int64 | dataset
string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Most common site of berry's aneurysm is?
|
[
"Veebral aery",
"Basilar aery",
"Junction of anterior cerebral aery and anterior communicating aery",
"Posterior cerebral aery"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Junction of anterior cerebral aery and anterior communicating aeryBerry aneurysm The fuher away the aneurysm from the anterior circulation or from the circle of willis , the less common will be its rate of occurance.Berry aneurysm or Saccualr aneurysm or Congenital aneurysm is the most frequent type of intracranial aneurysm. Most aneurysms occur in the anterior circulation and are found near the branchs points.Most common site is junction between anterior cerebral aery and anterior communication aery (40%). Next most common site is internal carotid aery and posterior communicating aery (20%)Less frequent sites include :?Top of basilar aeryJunction of basilar aery and the superior cerebllar aery or anterior inferior cerebellar aery. Junction of veebral aery and posterior inferior cerebellar aery.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is not a sign of reversible cell injury?
|
[
"ATP depletion",
"Cell shrinkage",
"Fatty acid deposition",
"Reduction of phosphorylation"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. (b) Cell shrinkage(Ref: Robbins 9th/38;8th/pg 17)Features of reversible cell injury seen in light microscopy are cellular swelling and fatty change.Cell shrinkage is a feature of apoptosis (cell death)
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Scrub typus -
|
[
"R.tsutsugamushi",
"R.typhi",
"R.akari",
"R. conorii"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., R. tsutsugamushi Scmb typhuso Caused by orient! a tsutsugamushio Reservoir of infection is the trombiculid mite.o It is transmitted to man by the bite of infected larval mites.o The nymphal and adult stages of the mite are free living in the soil; they do not feed on vertebrate host. It is the larva (chigger) that feed on vertebrate hosts and picks up the rickettsiae.o The infection is maintained in nature trans-ovarially from one generation of mite to next.o Clinical featursI P. 10-12 days.Chills, fever, headache, malaise.Macular rash appear on 5th day.Punched out ulcer with black eschar at the site of bite.o T/t - Doxycycline is drug of choice for all rickettsial infections.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Dangerous type of Herpes virus ?
|
[
"Herpes simplex-2",
"Cytomegalo virus",
"Epstein barr virus",
"Herpes virus simiae"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Herpes virus simiae Herpes Virus Simiae (Monkey B Virus) is biohazard risk group-4 virus which can cause serious or lethal human diseases.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The commonest hepatotropic virus progressing to chronicityis :
|
[
"HEV",
"HAV",
"HBV",
"HCV"
] |
Explanation:
Answer is D (HCV): Most common hepatitis to progress to chronicity is Hepatitis C. `Chronic hepatitis follows acute hepatitis in 50-70% of cases. Even in hose with a return to normal in AST/ALT levels after acute hepatitis C, chronic injection is common adding upto 85-90% likelihood of chronic HCV infection after acute hepatitis C.' - Harrison 16th/ 1849 Parameter HAV HBV HCV HDV HEV Progression to chronicity None Occasional (1-10%) Common (50-70%) *Common None * In acute HBV/HDV co infection, the frequency of chronicity is the same as that for HBV. In HDV superinfection chronicity is variable Clinical and epidemiologic features of viral hepatitis: Features HAV HBV HCV HDV HEV Incubation (days) Age 15-45 Children, young Adults 30-180 Young adults 15-160 Any age but more in adult 30-180 Any age 14-60 Young adults Transmission Fecal-oral +++ --- --- --- +++ Percutaneous Unusual +++ +++ +++ --- Perinatal --- +++ + + --- Sexual + ++ + ++ --- Clinical Severity Mild Occasionally Moderate Occasionally Mild Severe Severe Fulminant .1% .1%-l% .1% 5-20% 1-2% Progression to chronicity None Occasional (I- 10%) Common (50-70%) Common None Carrier None Q 01%-30% 1.5 to 3.2% Variable None Q Cancer None Q +nt +nt Variable None Q Prognosis Excellent Worse with age Moderate Acute: good Good Chronic: poor Prophylaxis IgG Vaccine HBIG None - Unknown Recombinant vaccine Memo : HCV is the most common Virus associated with transfusion associated hepatitis Q No vaccine / prophylaxis is available for HCV Q Malignant potential is present with HCV (also with HBV)
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Markedly inappropriate sensitivity, self-impoance and suspiciousness are clinical features of
|
[
"Antisocial",
"Histrionic",
"Schizoid",
"Paranoid"
] |
Explanation:
In Paranoid Personality Disorder, the traits include excessive sensitiveness, tendency to persistently bear grudges, significant suspiciousness, a combative and tenacious sense of personal 'right', recurrent suspicions about the fidelity of paner without justification, tendency to experience excessive self-impoance, and preoccupation with unsubstantiated 'conspiratorial' explanations of events. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 114
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Intra ocular pressure rises in
|
[
"Intubation & laryngoscopy",
"LMA",
"Infusion of IV propofol",
"Bag and mask ventilation"
] |
Explanation:
Laryngoscopy and intubation of trachea can dramatically increase intraocular pressure to a value as high as 40mm Hg.Administration of intravenous lignocaine prior to intubation has been found to prevent an increase in IOPIOP changes with LMA inseion are less than those following tracheal intubation.(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no 325-331)
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
25-di hydroxy cholecalciferol is converted to 1,25-dihy- drocholecalciferol in:
|
[
"Skin",
"Lung",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. (d) KidneyRef: Ganong 23rd ed. / 674
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Hypokalemia is -
|
[
"<3.5",
"<4.5",
"<5.6",
"<6.5"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 3.5 Serum potassiumo Normal-3.5 - 5.0 mmol'Lo Hypokalemia-<3.5o Hyperkalemia->5-6meq.'L
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Mutation is seen in -
|
[
"Poliovirus",
"Influenza virus",
"Mumps virus",
"Measles virus"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Influenza virus o A unique feature of the influenza virus is its ability to undergo antigenic variations.o Antigenic variability is highest in influenza virus Type A and less in Type B, while it has not been demonstrated in type C.o Surface antigens hemagglutinin and neurominidase, undergo independent antigenic variations which may be of Two types.Antigenic drifto Antigenic change is gradual over a period of timeo The new antigens, though different from the previous antigens, are yet related to them,o Antigenic drift involves point mutation in the gene owing to selection pressure by immunity in the host population.o Antigenic drift accounts for the periodic epidemics of influenza.o Occurs every 2-3 years in case of Influenza A and every 4-7 years in case of Influenza-BAntigenic shifto An abrupt, drastic, discontinuous variation in the antigenic structure,o Result from genetic recombination of human with animal or avian virus,o Accounts for the major epidemics or pandemics,o Occurs every 10-15 years,o Occurs in influenza 'A' only
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Acute mastitis commonly occurs during?
|
[
"Pregnancy",
"Pubey",
"Lactation",
"Infancy"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Lactation
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
New born doubles his weight at _____________
|
[
"3 months",
"6 months",
"9 months",
"12 months"
] |
Explanation:
weight of new born Weight of child in nude or minimal clothing is measured accurately on a lever or electronic type of weighing scale. Spring balances are less accurate. The weighing scale should have a minimum unit of 100g. Child should be placed in middle of pan. Age Weight(kg) Bih. 3 6 months 6 (doubles) 1 yr. 9(triples) 2 yr. 12(quadruples) 3 yr. 15 4 yr. 16 Reference: GHAI essential Paediatrics
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following drug when used with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, will lead to development of renal stones?
|
[
"Valproic acid",
"Carbamazepine",
"Gabapentin",
"Topiramate"
] |
Explanation:
Topiramate can be dangerous as it may cause renal stone formation if used along with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 3263, Table: 369/9.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Active ingredient of marking nut is -
|
[
"Semecarpol",
"Crotin",
"Abrin",
"None"
] |
Explanation:
Marking Nut Botanical name: Semicarpus anacardium Common name: Marking nut, bhilawa, biba Toxic Principle * Semecarpol * Bhilawanol REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO317
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Internal thoracic artery is a branch of-
|
[
"Common carotid artery",
"Brachiocephalic trunk",
"Subclavian artery",
"External carotic artery"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subclavian artery Internal thoracic arteryo It arises from 1st part of subclavian artery and descends through anterior ends of upper six intercostal spaces lying 1[?]25 cm lateral to sternal margin.o It divides into two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric in (f intercostal space,o Branches of internal thoracic artery are (i) mediastinal branches, (ii) pericardial branches, (iii) sternal branches, (iv) pericardiophrenic branches, (v) anterior intercostal arteries (in upper six spaces), (vi) perforating branches, and (vii) two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Calculate the minute ventilation from the spirogram assuming the respiratory rate as 12/min
|
[
"1 L/min",
"2 L/min",
"4 L/min",
"6 L/min"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. (d) 6L/min(Ref: Guyton, 13th ed.P.503)Minute ventilation = tidal volume x respiratory rateHere tidal volume is 500 ml (in the graph, it is seen as 3 L to 3.5 L)So, Minute ventilation =500x12=6L/min
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is
|
[
"Sequestrated in body tissues",
"Slowly eliminated from body",
"Poorly soluble in plasma",
"High bound to plasma proteins"
] |
Explanation:
Lipid insoluble drugs do not enter cell. Ref-KDT 6/e p18
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Commonest site of metastases is -
|
[
"Lung",
"Brain",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Function of leptin is-
|
[
"Reduce food intake",
"Stimulation of AgRP",
"Decrease lipolysis",
"All of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduce food intake Leptin* Leptin is a protein hormone produced by fat cells. It acts on hypothalamus to reduce food intake, decrease lipogenesis and increase lipolysis, thereby reducing the body fat stores.* The effect of leptin on appetite is mediated through a-MSH (a-melanocyte stimulating hormone), a pro- opiomelanocortin (POMC) derivative. Leptin acts by increasing the synthesis of POMC which is converted into a-MSH. a-MSH acts through melanocortin-4 receptors to depress appetite.* Leptin also inhibits the secretion of Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), a neuropeptide that increases food intake.* Plasma leptin levels are proportional to the amount of body fat and are therefore higher in women and obese individuals.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which is the most common cause of bowel obstruction
|
[
"Hernia",
"Ulcers causing obstruction",
"Adhesions",
"Structure"
] |
Explanation:
Adhesion will cause dynamic bowel obstruction
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
T11/2 of Haptoglobin complex is
|
[
"5 days",
"3 days",
"10 days",
"10 minutes"
] |
Explanation:
Answer- D. 10 minutesHemoglobin-haptoglobin complexes are rapidly cleared from circulation monocytes and tissue macrophages CDl63 receptors 15.Free haptoglobin has a half-life of 5 days, whereas hemoglobin-haptoglobin complexes have a half-life of l6minutes.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The neurotransmitters; nor–adrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine act through which of the following receptors ?
|
[
"Single pass transmembrane receptors",
"Four pass transmembrane receptors",
"Seven pass transmembrane receptors",
"Ligand gated receptors"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Cranial irradiation is useful in treatment of?
|
[
"Medulloblastoma",
"Astrocytoma",
"Germinoma",
"All of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. D. All of the above. (Ref. Walter and Miller's Textbook of Radiotherapy 7th/Ch. 33)Craniospinal irradiation is used for patients who have, or are at risk for, disseminated disease throughout the CNS that is not sufficiently responsive to chemotherapy (typically methotrexate). This includes:# Embryonal CNS malignancies (medulloblastoma, PNET, atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumour)# Intracranial germ cell tumour with evidence of distant CNS metastases.# Epenedymoma with evidence of distant CNS metastases or CSF involvement- Craniospinal radiation is central to the management of medulloblastoma. Depending upon the age and the use of chemotherapy, cranio-spinal irradiation (CSI) of 25 to 35 Gy and boost radiation to the posterior fossa to a total dose of 50-55Gy over 6-7 weeks is the standard of care.- Post operative radiotherapy (localised fields to a dose of 54 Gy/30) is required in selected cases with residual cerebellar astrocytoma particularly in the brain stem. Chemotherapy is generally not indicated in these tumours.- In germinomas, Radiotherapy directed toward the craniospinal axis or tumor site alone at decreased dose levels is effective.Tumours with high propensity for neuraxis dissemination include :# medulloblastoma, intracranial germ cell tumour, primary CNS lymphoma and undifferentiated round cell tumours such as ependymoblastoma and PNET.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A 26-year-old man with a family history of colon carcinoma undergoes a surveillance colonoscopy. It reveals hundreds of polyps in the colon and two focal 0.5-cm ulcerated areas. A biopsy specimen from an ulcer reveals irregularly shaped glands that have penetrated into the muscular layer. Which of the following molecular events is believed to occur very early in the evolution of his colonic disease process?
|
[
"Activation of the WNT signaling pathway",
"Inability to hydrolyze GTP-bound RAS",
"Loss of heterozygosity affecting the p53 gene",
"Mutations in mismatch repair genes."
] |
Explanation:
The patient has a classic history of familial adenomatous polyposis with numerous adenomatous polyps and malignant transformation. The earliest event in the APC - adenocarcinoma sequence is the loss of APC gene function. This prevents the destruction of b-catenin in the cytoplasm, which translocate to the nucleus and coactivates transcription of several genes. The APC b-catenin sequence is a component of the WNT signaling pathway. RAS activation occurs after the malignant transformation sequence is initiated by the APC (gatekeeper) gene. Loss of cell cycle G1 arrest occurs with p53 loss late in the sequence. Mutations in mismatch repair genes give rise to hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer syndrome from loss of ability to repair DNA damage. The BCL2 gene is not involved in the transition from adenoma to carcinoma.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
The term "Ambivalence" was coined by -
|
[
"Hippocrates",
"Eugen bleuler",
"Kraeplin",
"Sigmund freud"
] |
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
|
Chemotherapy is useful in all, except -
|
[
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Germ cell tumor",
"Secondaries",
"Carcinoma cervix"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
40 year old man presents with resting heart rate of 180 beats/min. Pressure-volume diagram of left ventricle is shown below. What is the cardiac output?
|
[
"5.6 L/min",
"5.2 L/min",
"4.8 L/min",
"6 L/min"
] |
Explanation:
EDV = 130ml ; ESV = 50ml
Stroke volume = EDV -ESV = 130 - 50 = 70 ml
Cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke Volume
= 80 × 70
= 5600 ml /min
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is an example of Trinucleotide repeat mutation -
|
[
"Huntington's chorea",
"Fragile-X-syndrome",
"Friedreich ataxia",
"All of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Trinucleotide repeat mutationo In this type of mutation a codon (i.e. trinucleotide sequence) undergoes amplification and the same codon is repeated continuously so many times in the chain.o Diseases associated w ith trinucleotide repeat mutation are Huntington-s disease (CAG repeat). Spinocerebellar ataxia (CAG repeat), friedreich ataxia (GAA repeat), fragile-X-syndrome (GGG or GCC repeat), dystrophia myotonica (CTG/CUG repeat), X-linked spinobulbar muscular atrophy (CAG repeat) and dentorubral paltidolusian atrophy (CAG repeat).
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A codon in the genetic code consists of:
|
[
"One molecule of charged-tRNA",
"A Shine-Dalgarno sequence",
"Three consecutive nucleotides",
"Two complementary base pairs"
] |
Explanation:
A codon is a triplet sequence of bases. The tRNA molecule contains an anticodon. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found in the 23S prokaryotic ribosomal RNA. A codon is on the same strand of DNA or mRNA.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
IUCD lasting for 10 years is:
|
[
"Progestase",
"CuT - 380A",
"CuT - 220",
"Nova T"
] |
Explanation:
Cu T 380A( ParaGard) Second generation IUD Carries 380 mm surface area of copper wire(314mm wrapped on veical stem and 33mm on each arm). Frame contains barium sulphate and is radio opaque Polyethylene and barium sulfate T-shaped frame wound with copper, and two strings extend from the stem base. Currently approved for 10 years of use following inseion
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Commonest type of ca breast is :
|
[
"Papillary ca",
"Pagets disease",
"Fibrasorcoma",
"Infiltrative ductal ca"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' ie Infiltrative Ductal ca Almost all breast malignancies are adenocarcinomas, all other types (i.e. squamous cell Ca, phylloides tumors, sarcomas, and lymphomas are rareThey are divided into two types ductal and lobular types each of which are further two types carcinoma in situ & invasive type.Ductal carcinomas arise from epithelium lining the ducts and lobular arises from the epithelium of the acini forming lobules.Infiltrative ductal Ca is the most common type of breast Ca.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The time period that elapses between the physic emotional stress and the hair loss is about?
|
[
"21 days",
"30 days",
"3 months",
"6 months"
] |
Explanation:
C. i.e. 3 months
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
|
[
"Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer",
"Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder",
"Papilloma viruses produce tumors in animals but not in humans",
"Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Maximum Permitted Radiation exposure in a occupational worker per year is?
|
[
"1msv",
"50msv",
"20msv",
"30 msv"
] |
Explanation:
AERB guidelines: Dose Limitations Pa of the body Occupational Exposure Public Exposure Whole body (Effective dose) 20 mSv/year averaged over 5 consecutive years; 30 mSv/year in any single year 1 mSv/y Lens of eyes (Equivalent dose) 150 mSv in a year 15 msv/y Skin (Equivalent dose 500 msv in a year 50 mSv/y Extremities (Hands and Feat) Equivalent dose 500 mSv in a year - For pregnant radiation workers, after declaration of pregnancy 1 mSv on the embryo/fetus should not exceed.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A 62-year-old woman eats a high carbohydrate meal. Her plasma glucose concentration rises, and this results in increased insulin secretion from the pancreatic islet cells. The insulin response is an example of
|
[
"Chemical equilibrium",
"End-product inhibition",
"Feed forward control",
"Negative feedback"
] |
Explanation:
Negative feedback mechanisms ensure a proper level of hormone activity at the target tissue. After a stimulus (plasma glucose) causes a release of the hormone (insulin), conditions or products resulting from the action of the hormone (decrease sugar) tend to suppress its fuher release. In other words, the hormone (or one of its products) has a negative feedback effect to prevent oversecretion of the hormone or overactivity at thetarget tissueThe increase in plasma insulin lowers the plasma glucose concentration which in turn results in decreased insulin secretion
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The following condition is most likely seen in which of the following condition:
|
[
"Vitamin D Intoxication",
"Acromegaly",
"Hyper parathyroid",
"None of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. C. Hyper parathyroida. The image shows subperiosteal bone resorption of radial aspects of proximal & middle phalanges of 2nd, 3rd, 4th fingersb. This is characteristic radiological feature of hyperparathyroidism.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Following shown condition is least common in:
|
[
"Frank breech",
"Transverse lie",
"Footling presentation",
"Brow presentation"
] |
Explanation:
Abnormal Labour patterns diagnostic criteria and potential it.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
An attempt of division of a single tooth before calcification, resulting in incomplete formation of two teeth is called
|
[
"Gemination",
"Twinning",
"Concrescence",
"Fusion"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Creeping fat is a feature of
|
[
"Crohn's disease",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Celiac disease",
"Tropical sprue"
] |
Explanation:
fat may encircle around antimesentric serosal surface producing a pattern known as creeping fat. mnemonic: FIND CASH Fissures Ileum Non-caseating granuloma Distoion of mucosal architecture Creeping fat, Crypt abscess, Cobblestone appearance. Aphthous ulcer Skip lesions Hose pipe like bowel SYSTEMIC AND GENERAL PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK PG NO.406
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
A woman complains of discharge and soreness in the vulval region at a POA of 36 weeks. Examination reveals small discreet, tender ulcers in the labia majora, minora and perineum. She has not had a similar episode previously. On viral culture and serological testing she did not have antibodies against the infecting strain.What is the best treatment option?
|
[
"Perform a cesarean section immediately",
"Treat with oral acyclovir and induced labour as soon as the ulcers heal",
"Treat with oral acyclovir and await spontaneous onset of labour",
"Treat with oral acyclovir and perform an elective cesarean section at 38 weeks"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is d, i.e. Treat with oral acyclovir and perform an elective cesarean section at 38 weeksThis is a case of primary herpes because she does not have type-specific antibodies. The best management option is to deliver by cesarean section at 38 weeks, if primary herpes occurs in the third trimester, especially during the last 6 weeks, as there is no time for the mother to develop antibodies. It is not necessary to perform a cesarean section immediately as transplacental transmission does not occur. Treatment with acyclovir is indicated in primary herpes as it reduces the severity and the duration of the maternal disease.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Not a function of Female health worker posted at sub center level:-
|
[
"Condom distribution",
"Malaria surveillance",
"Conduct urine examination",
"Bih and death record keeping"
] |
Explanation:
Malaria surveillance work is given to Male health workers(MHW) Female health workers(FHW) provide maternal and child health services Female health worker Male health worker Record keeping Contraceptive distribution, Immunization, Delivery conducting, suppoing Dais Family planning message spread, Hb estimation, urine examination Paicipating and co-coordinating community health programme Record keeping Malaria surveillance ORS distribution Chlorination Immunisation Family planning Identifying and referring communicable diseases
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A 32 year old female presented with anxiety, palpitations, and diarrhea. Lab studies show elevated T4, TSH levels are low & increased long acting thyroid stimulating antibody titres. A diagnosis of Graves disease is made. But then the patient came to emergency with sudden onset of acute chest pain. CT angiography which is useful in making the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, can be potentially dangerous in this patient because:
|
[
"Iodinated contrast exposure in patients with Graves disease may exacerbate hypehyroidism.",
"Pulmonary embolism is exceedingly rare in Graves disease.",
"Radiation exposure in patients with hypehyroidism is associated with increased risk of subsequent malignancy.",
"Tachycardia with Graves disease limits the image quality of CT angiography and will not allow accurate assessment of pulmonary embolism."
] |
Explanation:
Patients with Graves disease produce higher levels of T4, as a result they are mildly iodine deficient, thus T4 production is somewhat limited. Iodinated contrast reverses iodine deficiency and may precipitate worsening of hypehyroidism. It may make iodine-125 therapy less successful because thyroid iodine uptake is decreased in the iodine-repleted state.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Nonshivering thermogenesis is due to
|
[
"Acetylcholine",
"Norepinephrine",
"Dopamine",
"Serotonin"
] |
Explanation:
Non-shivering thermogenesis occurs in brown adipose tissue (brown fat) that is present in all eutherians (swine being the only exception currently known). Brown adipose tissue has a unique uncoupling protein (thermogenin, also known as uncoupling protein 1) that allows the uncoupling of protons moving down their mitochondrial gradient from the synthesis of ATP, thus allowing the energy to be dissipated as heat. It is due to norepinephrine. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:885,886,887
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
The posterior 1/3 of the tongue is supplied by....nerve
|
[
"Hypoglossal",
"Chorda tymapni",
"Lingual",
"Glossopharyngeal"
] |
Explanation:
D i.e. Glossopharyngeal
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The reagent used in Apt test is: (D. REPEAT Feb 2014}
|
[
"Sodium bicarbonate",
"KCL",
"Sodium hydroxide",
"Sodium chloride"
] |
Explanation:
Ans: C (Sodium hydroxide) Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th editionExplanation:The Alkali Denaturation Test (Apt-Downey Test or Apt Test)Used to detect differentiate Fetal or neonatal blood from maternal blood (Qualitative).Clinical Uses:o Vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy is tested to rule out Vasa previa.o Neonatal bloody vomitus or bloody stool to rule out swallowed maternal blood.o To detect the presence of fetal blood in the maternal circulation in cases of suspected fetal-maternal hemorrhage.Positive test indicates that blood is of fetal origin.Negative test indicates that the blood is o* maternal origin.PrincipleFetal hemoglobin (alpha 2 gamma 2 subunits) is resistant to alkali (basic) denaturation, whereas Adult hemoglobin (alpha 2 beta 2 subunits) is susceptible to such denaturation.Exposing the blood specimen to sodium hydroxide (NaOH) will denature the adult but NOT the feta! hemoglobin.The fetal hemoglobin will appear as a pinkish color under the microscope while the adult hemoglobin will appear as a yellow- brownish color.MethodThe blood is mixed with sterile water to cause hemolysis of the RBCs, yielding free hemoglobin.The 5 ml pink hemoglobin-containing supernatant is then mixed with 1 mL of 1% NaOH.Fetal hemoglobin will stay pink and adult hemoglobin will turn yellow-brown.Adult hemoglobin changes colour because it is less stable and will convert to hematin.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Antifolate cancer drug are -
|
[
"Methotrexate",
"Azathioprine",
"Cycl osporin",
"Vincristine"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methotrexate o Folate antagonists which are used as anticancer cancer drugs :- (i) Methotrexate; (ii) Premetrexate
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Not present in the proximal row of carpal bone?
|
[
"Lunate",
"Scaphoid",
"Trapezium",
"Pisiform"
] |
Explanation:
CARPAL BONES The proximal row of carpal bones contains ( from lateral to medial) Scaphoid Lunate Triquetral Pisiform The distal row contains in the same order Trapezium Trapezoid Capitate Hamate REF: B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no : 25.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
A 67 yr male with history of chronic smoking hemoptysis with cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy from centrally located mass shows undifferentiated tumor histopathologically. Most useful I.H.C. (immunohistochemical) marker to make a proper diagnosis would be
|
[
"Cytokeratin",
"Parvalbumin",
"HMB-45",
"Hep-par1"
] |
Explanation:
• The presence of chronic smoking, cough and hemoptysis in old man is a pointer towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic cancer. The central location suggests the possibility of a squamous cell cancer.
• Robbins writes “Histologically, this tumor is characterized by the presence of keratinization and/or intercellular bridges”.
Other options: HMB (melanoma), Hep par1 (liver cancer) and parvalbumin (schizophrenia).
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Pepsinogen is activated by ?
|
[
"Enterokinase",
"Enteropeptidase",
"H+",
"Trypsin"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is c i.e.,H+ Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of stomach in an inactive (zymogen) form called pepsinogen. Acid (IF) in lumen of stomach conves pepsinogen to active pepsin. Pepsin once formed also attacks pepsinogen producing more pepsin molecules by autocatalysis.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Sharp instruments like needles, syringes, scalpels hospital waste products are thrown in -
|
[
"Yellow bag",
"Red bag",
"Blue bag",
"Black bag"
] |
Explanation:
- wastes sharps including needles, syringes ,blades and glasss comes under category no.4. - category no 4 wastes are discarded in blue colour plastic bag or puncture proof container. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 793,794 <\p>
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
For diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic fever, essential is:
|
[
"Prior h/o rheumatic fever",
"Recent sore throat infection",
"1 major and 2 minor criteria's",
"Erythema marginatum"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Which of the following antiepileptic agents acts on the GABAergic system to decrease the uptake of GABA into neurons and glial cells ?
|
[
"Vigabatrin",
"Progabide",
"Gabapentin",
"Tiagabine"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
The main function of Vitamin C in the body is
|
[
"Coenzyme for energy metabolism",
"Regulation of lipid synthesis",
"Involvement as antioxidant",
"Inhibition of cell growth"
] |
Explanation:
Vitamin C is one of a group of nutrients that includes vitamin E (see p. 391) and b-carotene (see p. 382), which are known as antioxidants. Consumption of diets rich in these compounds is associated with a decreased incidence of some chronic diseases, such as coronary hea disease and ceain cancers. However, clinical trials involving supplementation with the isolated antioxidants have failed to determine any convincing beneficial effects.Reference: Lippincott, Edition 5, page no: 378
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Radiological features of scleroderma are A/E:
|
[
"Diffuse periosteal reaction",
"Esophageal dysmotality",
"Erosion of tip of phalynx",
"Lung nodules"
] |
Explanation:
A i.e. Diffuse periosteal reaction
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
When an outcome is compared with intended objectives ,it is called as
|
[
"Monitoring",
"Evaluation",
"Input output analysis",
"Network analysis"
] |
Explanation:
Ref: p.933 25th edition Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Myasthenia gravis is associated with-
|
[
"Antibodies against Ach receptors",
"Decreased myosin",
"Absent troponin C",
"Increased myoneural junction transmission"
] |
Explanation:
*MG is an autoimmune disease most commonly caused by antibodies to Ach receptors in the post junctional membrane of neuromuscular junction Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Amber codon is
|
[
"UAA",
"UAG",
"UGA",
"UGG"
] |
Explanation:
Name of Stop codons: UAG - Amber codon UGA - Opal codon UAA - Ochre codon
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Best investigation for diagnosing amyloidosis-
|
[
"Rectal biopsy",
"Colonoscopy",
"CT scan",
"Upper GI endoscopy"
] |
Explanation:
The diagnosis of amyloidosis may be suspected from the clinical signs and symptoms and from some of the findings mentioned; however, more specific tests must often be done for definitive diagnosis. Biopsy and subsequent Congo red staining is the most impoant tool in the diagnosis of amyloidosis. In general, biopsy is taken from the organ suspected to be involved. For example, renal biopsy is useful in the presence of urinary abnormalities. Rectal and gingival biopsy specimens contain amyloid in as many as 75% of cases with generalized amyloidosis. Examination of abdominal fat aspirates stained with Congo red is a simple, low-risk method. In suspected cases of AL amyloidosis, serum and urinary protein electrophoresis and immunoelectrophoresis should be performed. Bone marrow examination in such cases usually shows plasmacytosis, even if skeletal lesions of multiple myeloma are not present. Proteomic analysis of affected tissue is now being widely used for detection of small amounts of amyloid (from fat aspirates) and for definitive identification of the type of amyloid. Robbins 9 th edition page no. 158
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
In ARDS which is damaged?
|
[
"Type 1 pneumocytes",
"Type 2 pneumocytes",
"Clara cells",
"Clara cells"
] |
Explanation:
In ARDS,alveolar capillary endothelial cells & type 1 pneumocytes(alveolar epithelial cells) are damaged/injured,leading to the loss of the normally tight alveolar barrier to fluid and macromolecules.As a result,edema fluid rich in protein accumulates in the interstitial & alveolar spaces.Condensed plasma proteins aggregate in the air spaces with cellular debris and dysfunctional pulmonary surfactant to form hyaline membrane whorls. Reference:Harrison's Medicine-20th edition,page no:2032
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
In a patient with a history of burning pain localized to the plantar aspect of the foot, the differential diagnosis must include -
|
[
"Peripheral vascular disease",
"Tarsal coalation.",
"Tarsal tunnel syndrome",
"Planter fibromatosis"
] |
Explanation:
Three most common caused of pain in the plantar aspect of the foot are plantar fasciitis, tarsal tunnel syndrome, and posterior tibial tendinopathy.
Plantar fasciitis is the most common cause; however, burning pain is characteristic of neural pain.
"If the patient describes the sensation as `burning "tingling ' or `numbness', the cause is peripheral nerve entrapment" __Neuromedicine
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
All are aromatic amino acids EXCEPT:
|
[
"Phenylalanine",
"Tyrosine",
"Tryphophan",
"Lysine"
] |
Explanation:
(Lysine): Ref 49, U.S. (75- R.S. 7th)* Aromatic amino acids: Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan (with indole ring) are aromatic amino acids, Basides these histidine may also be considered this category.* Hydroxyl group containing amino acids: - Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine* Amino acids with aliphatic side chains: - Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine {Branchedchain amino acids) Glycine, Alanine* Basic amino acids: - Lysine, Arginine {with guanidine group) and Histidine {imidazole ring)* Non polar amino acids: - Alanine, laucine, Isoleucine, Valine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, tryptophan and proline
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
For Thyroglossal Cyst Most Common site is
|
[
"Suprahyoid",
"Subhyoid",
"Foreman caecum",
"At Thyroid Isthmus"
] |
Explanation:
Although Thyroglossal Duct cysts may occur anywhere from the Base of the tongue to the thyroid gland , most are found at or just below the hyoid bone. Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg : 1862
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following structures can be viewed through a bronchoscope, EXCEPT:
|
[
"Trachea",
"Vocal cords",
"Subcarinal lymph nodes",
"First segmental division of bronchi"
] |
Explanation:
Subcarinal lymph nodes are mediastinal lymph nodes located around the carina on the other side of the tracheal wall and hence not visualized on bronchoscopy. Involvement of subcarinal nodes may be suspected on bronchoscopy by widening and fixity of the carina and/or paralysis of the vocal cords but these nodes cannot be 'directly visualized'.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma –
|
[
"Homatropine mydratic test",
"Mydriatic – miotic test",
"Water drinking test",
"Dark room test"
] |
Explanation:
Two provocative tests have been described for prodromal stage (latent POAG) i) Prone-darkroom provocative test is the most popular and best physiological provocative test; ii) Mydriatic provocative test (not physiological).
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Optimal operation theatre temperature should be
|
[
"21degC",
"28degC",
"32degC",
"37degC"
] |
Explanation:
Optimal operation theatre temperature for adults is 21degC and for children is 28degC.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Blockade of nerve conduction by a local anesthetic is characterized by:
|
[
"Greater potential to block a resting nerve as compared to a stimulated nerve",
"Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block",
"Large myelinated fibers are blocked before the un myelinated fibers",
"Cause consistent change of resting membrane potential"
] |
Explanation:
Essentials of medical pharmacology, seventh edition , page no=361, Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by decreasing the entry of sodium ions during upstroke of action potential. They interact with a receptor situated within the voltage sentive sodium channel and raise the threshold of channel opening. Hence optuon 2 is the answer since they have to cross the cell membrane to block the nerves.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Ham's test is used in Screening of
|
[
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"G6PD deficiency",
"PNH",
"Any hemolytic disorder"
] |
Explanation:
Ham's test is the best screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal Hemoglobinuria.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Ramu 40 year old man, chronic Alcoholic, diagnosed as cirrhosis, presents with a lump in the right lobe of liver. Serum AFP level is normal. Most probable diagnosis is
|
[
"Fibro hyperplasia",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Secondaries",
"Hepatic adenoma"
] |
Explanation:
This is a typical case of HCC, remember AFP is raised in about 75% of Africans and only 30% of patients in US and Europe Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1458-1463
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following does not affect the metabolism of Theophylline?
|
[
"Erythromycin",
"Smoking",
"Cimetidine",
"Steroids"
] |
Explanation:
Steroids does not affect metabolism of theophylline. Smoking is found to increase clearence of theophylline. Drugs increasing the clearence of theophylline are rifampicin, phenobarbitone and ethanol. Drugs inhibiting the clearence are cimetidine, erythromycin, ciprofloxacin, allopurinol and zileuton.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following vaccine should not be given during pregnancy?
|
[
"HBV",
"Measles, mumps, rubella",
"Typhoid",
"Cholera"
] |
Explanation:
.such live attenuated viral vaccines are not given during pregnancy and other immunocompromised states. ref:park&;s textbook,22 nd ed,pg 132
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A parent noted an abdominal mass in it. the side of her 6 mth. old child. Which showed calcification near the left kidney. what will be the cause
|
[
"Neuroblastoma",
"Leukemia",
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Lymphoma"
] |
Explanation:
Neuroblastoma is the most common solid tumor of infancy and childhood* and 3/4 of pt present with an abdominal mass. Plain x-ray shows fine, stippled calcification in 50 percent of the cases. More about Neuroblastoma Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor of neural crest origin*, arising from the sympathetic nervous tissue from the orbit to the pelvis. Age - It occurs chiefly in very young children median age is 2 years. It is the most common solid tumor of infancy and most common tumor in newborn. * MC intrabdominal tumor in children. M.C. site is----- Adrenal medulla* 90% of pts. have increased catecholamine * secretion which can be identified by increased urinary levels of metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid. Clinical evidence of catecholamine excess is however rare. Excessive VIP secretion presents with Hypokalemic watery diarrhoea * syndrome. Hematogenous metastasis occurs very early. Orbital metastasis* may present with proptosis, periorbital ecchymosis. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p814
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
M3 Receptor antagonist used in the treatment of bladder over activity is:
|
[
"Tamsulosin",
"Desmopressin",
"Doxazosin",
"Darifenacin"
] |
Explanation:
Ans: d (Darifenacin) Ref:Campbells urology, 9th ed,p. 2093Darifenacin is a relatively selective M muscarinic receptor antagonist used in bladder overactivity.The other anti muscarinic agents used are:TolterodineTrospiumSolifenacinPropanthelineAtropineHyocyanine
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Which is true about lesser petrosal nerve?
|
[
"Supplies secretory fibres to parotid gland",
"Exits from foramen spinosum",
"Branch of facial nerve",
"Synapse in pterygopalatine ganglion"
] |
Explanation:
The parasympathetic or secretomotor fibres of the parotid gland arise form the inferior salivatory nucleus, pass successively through the glossopharyngeal nerve,tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerev(Jacobson&;s nerve), tympanic plexus and lesser petrosal nerve to relay in the otic ganglion.It exits through foramen ovale.It is a branch of tympanic plexus of tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve.-Reference: Textbook of anatomy, head neck and brain Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.142, 320,345
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is not seen in ARDS
|
[
"Pulmonary edema",
"Hypoxemia",
"Stiff lung",
"Hypercapnia"
] |
Explanation:
Acute respiratory distress syndrome is a clinical syndrome of severe dyspnoea of rapid onset,hypoxaemia,and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates leading to respiratory failure.It is also known as hyaline membrane disease.The exudative phase is characterised by alveolar/pulmonary edema predominantely involving dependent poions of the lung,leading to diminished aeration,hypoxaemia,& atelectasis.As a result ofncoating of the alveoli with hyaline membranes,there is loss of surfactant causing collapse called 'stiff lung'. ARDS is characterized by type 1 respiratory failure which has only hypoxia but the value of CO2 is normal. ARDS has noncardiogenic pulmonary edema with normal PCWP. Reference:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2205-2207,Textbook of pathology-Harsh Mohan,6th edition,page no:463
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Malignant transformation is commonly seen in ?
|
[
"Stomal ulcer",
"Gastric ulcer",
"Chronic Duodenal ulcer",
"None"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is None Earlier it was thought the malignant transformation occurs in chronic gastric ulcer but recent evidences suggest that it is not so. Those found to be malignant are malignant from the very beginning and are mistakenly labelled as benign due to inadequate biopsy.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Fall on foot causes?
|
[
"Pond fracture",
"Gutter fracture",
"Cerebral hemisphere divided into half",
"Compression fracture"
] |
Explanation:
ANSWER: (D) Compression fractureREF: Manual of orthopedics by Marc F. Swiontkowski MD 6th ed Ch: 7Burst Compression fractures of the lumbar spine are associated with fractures of calcaneus in a setting where a person falls and land on foot. This type of fracture is called a Don Juan fracture.Calcaneal fractures are more frequent than any other fracture of the tarsal bones and comprise 1% to 2% of all fractures. These fractures, which are often bilateral, are likely to occur when a person falls from a height and lands on the heels. Associated injuries include compression fractures of the lumbar spine and occasionally fractures about the knee or pelvis.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Loop diuretics acts on ?
|
[
"Descending limb",
"Thick ascending limb",
"Coical segment",
"Collecting duct"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is b' i.e., Thick ascending limb
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused due to lesion in which of the following:
|
[
"Occipital lobes",
"Pretectal fibres",
"Medial longitudinal fasciculus",
"Para pontine reticular fibres"
] |
Explanation:
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused due to lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus ascending from the abducens nucleus in the pons to the oculomotor nucleus in the midbrain. Damage to fibers carrying the conjugate signal from abducens interneurons to the contralateral medial rectus motoneurons results in a failure of adduction on attempted lateral gaze. Patient with a left internuclear ophthalmoplegia will show slowed or absent adducting movements of the left eye. Patients with bilateral injury to the medial longitudinal fasciculus will have bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia. One-and-a-half syndrome occur due to a combined lesion of the medial longitudinal fasciculus and the abducens nucleus on the same side. In this patient the only horizontal eye movement is abduction of the eye on the other side. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e chapter 28.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Maylard incision involves a trasverse cut through which of the following muscles?
|
[
"Rectus abdominis",
"Serratus anterior",
"Pectoralis major",
"Psoas major"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus abdominis Maylard incision:* Mayland Incision is a surgical incision in which a transverse cut is made on rectus abdominis muscle to allow wider access to the pelvic cavity. It is also called Mackenrodt incision.* For gynaecological surgery, the skin incision is made 5-8 cm above the pubic symphysis. The site of skin incision is above and parallel to traditional Pfannenstiel incision.* The rectus fascia and muscle are cut transversely and the incision is extended as far laterally as needed.* The anterior rectus sheath is not separated from the muscle to facilitate easy closure at the end of the surgical procedure.* The inferior epigastric vessels which span across more than half of the rectus muscle's width are identified and ligated.* In patients with peripheral arterial disease, ligation of inferior epigastric vessels may lead to distal ischemia.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Suicidal tendency is associated with: September 2005
|
[
"Depression",
"Schizophrenia",
"Impulsive disorder",
"All of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. D: All of the aboveDepression is a state of low mood and aversion to activity.A depressed person will experience or display some of the following:Persistent sadness, anxiety or feelings of emptinessFeelings of hopelessness, helplessness and/or pessimism.Feelings of wohlessness or guiltContemplating suicide or suicide attemptProblems concentrating, remembering details and making decisionsFatigue and loss of energyPersistent aches, pains or digestive problems that are resistant to treatmentIrritability or restlessnessInsomnia, waking early, or excessive sleepingOvereating, or appetite lossLoss of interest in activities that once were pleasurable (e.g., hobbies, sex, social activities, etc.).Other features which increases the risk of completed suicide:Age more than 40 yearsMaleStaying singlePrevious suicidal attemptsSuicidal preoccupation (written suicidal note)Alcohol/drug dependenceUntreatable physical illnessRecent stressful life eventHigher degree of impulsivitySome schizophrenic patients develop depressive features within 12 months of an acute episode of schizophrenia.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
What is the emergent management of tension pneutnothorax?
|
[
"Chest X-ray",
"Emergency room thoracotomy in unstable patients",
"Inse needle in 2nd intercostal space",
"Tube thoracostomy in 5th intercostal space"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. c. Inse needle in 2nd intercostal space Emergent management of tension pneumothorax is to inse needle in 2nd intercostal space. 'Treatment of tension pneumothorax consists of immediate decompression by rapid inseion of a large-bore needle into the 2nd intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line of the affected hemothorax.'
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Aery cannulated most commonly for invasive blood pressure monitoring is: March 2013 (f)
|
[
"Femoral aery",
"Carotid aery",
"Radial aery",
"Ulnar aery"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. C i.e. Radial aery
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Secretin does not cause :
|
[
"Secretin does not cause :",
"Auguments the action of CCK",
"Contraction of pyloic sphincter",
"Gastric secretion increase"
] |
Explanation:
D i.e. Gastric secretion increases
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Blindness in a child is most commonly due to -
|
[
"Keratomalacia",
"Congenital cataract",
"Glaucoma",
"Injuries"
] |
Explanation:
Keratomalacia is due to vitamin A deficiency.
"Vitamin A deficiency is the most common cause of blindness in children in India". __ Philip Reily
"Vitamin A deficiency is the single most important cause of blindness in children". — Wykoff
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Half life of IgG is
|
[
"1-5 days",
"2-8 days",
"6 days",
"20-23 days"
] |
Explanation:
Half-life of different immunoglobulins –
IgG - About 22 to 25 days
IgA - About 6 to 8 days
IgM - About 5 days
IgE - About 2 to 8 days
IgD - About 3 days
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following drugs does not affect absorption and secretion of cerebrospinal fluid?
|
[
"Halothane",
"Nitrous oxide",
"Ketamine",
"Thiopentone sodium"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. b. Nitrous oxide
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Hypotonia, tremor and ataxia are seen in lesion or -
|
[
"Basal ganglia",
"Medullary pyramid",
"Cerebellum",
"Pons"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Variation of Sample mean from Population mean is:
|
[
"Standard error of the mean",
"Standard error of propoion",
"Standard error of difference between two means",
"Standard error of difference between two propoions"
] |
Explanation:
Standard error: It is the variation of sample mean from population mean. Sample mean is known as statistic. Population mean is known as parameter. - Standard detion is the variation in a single value from the mean of a sample.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Antidepressant drug that can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome and tardive dyskinesia is: March 2009
|
[
"Amineptin",
"Carbamazepine",
"Amoxapine",
"Trazodone"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. C: Amoxapine One of major metabolites of amoxapine, 7-hydroxyamoxapine, has a dopamine receptor blocking effect, making this drug a common cause of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Amoxapine is also associated with acute extrapyramidal symptoms and tardive dyskinesia.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
A primigravida with 38 completed weeks of gestation has gone into labor. Oxytoxin was staed to augment labor. The second messenger system through which oxytoxin acts is ?
|
[
"cAMP",
"Phospholipase",
"cGMP",
"Tyrosine kinase"
] |
Explanation:
The second messenger system through which oxytoxin acts in phospoholipase C mechanism. Hormones acting IP3- DAGor phospholipase C pathway: Acetylcholine (muscuranic) Angiotensin II ] ADH (V1 receptor ) a1 receptor adrenergic hormones Cholecystokinin Gastrin GnRH Oxytoxin TRH GHRH Substance P Ref: internet sources
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Jamais vu is
|
[
"Illusion that what one is hearing, one has heard previously",
"A unfamiliar thought regarded as repetition of a previous thought",
"Unfamiliar situations or events feel strangely familiar",
"Feeling of strangeness to familiar situation"
] |
Explanation:
deja vu=== feeling of familiarity to a novel stimulus jamais vu==feeling of unfamiliarity to a familiar stimulus Reference.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11th edition, pg No.194
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Most common site of Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus:-
|
[
"Upper 1/3rd",
"Middle 1/3rd",
"Lower 1/3rd",
"Cardia"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. (b) Middle l/3rdRef: Bailey and Love 26thEdition, Page 1004* Most common site of SCC: Middle third* Most common site of adenocarcinoma: Lower third
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A 14 year old boy has difficulty expressing himself in writing and makes frequent spelling mistakes, does not follow instruction and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from -
|
[
"Mental retardation",
"Lack of interest in studies",
"Specific learning disability",
"Examination anxiety"
] |
Explanation:
Information in this question are -
Difficulty in expressing himself in written (problem in written expression)
Makes spelling mistakes (problem in spelling).
Both these are manifestations of dyslexia, a specific learning disability.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Lipoprotein with seavenging action is:
|
[
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL",
"None"
] |
Explanation:
A i.e. HDLHDL scavanges body cholesterol and blood vessel wall cholesterol by 'reverse cholesterol transpo'-[Shinde P- 3861 The transpo of cholesterol from the tissue to liver is known as 'reverse cholesterol transpo'.* Class B scavenger receptor Bl (SR -B1) and ATP binding cassette transpoer Al (ABCA 1) are involved in reverse cholesterol transpoQ.* Reverse cholesterol transpo involves efflux of cholesterol from peripheral cells to HDL, esterification of cholesterol by PCAT (phosphatidyl choline: cholesterol acyl transferase), binding of cholesterol ester rich HDL (HDL-2) to liver and steroidogenic cells, the selective transfer of the cholesteryl esters into these cells and the release of lipid depleted HDL (HDL-3).The efflux of cholesterol from peripheral cells is mediated by ABCA-1 and the uptake of cholesteryl ester by liver is mediated by SRBI. Hepatic lipase degrade both triacyl glycerol and phospholipid, & paicipate in conversion of HDL2 to HDL3, (HDL cycle). HDL2 concentrations are inversely related to incidence of coronary atherosclerosis. HDLc (HDLG) is found in diet induced hyper cholesterolemic animals. It is rich in cholesterol & has only apo E apoprotein.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following valvular hea diseases is most commonly associated with sudden death:
|
[
"Aoic Stenosis",
"Mitral Stenosis",
"Mitral Regurgitation",
"Aoic Regurgitation"
] |
Explanation:
Answer is A (Aoic Stenosis) Aoic Stenosis is the most common valvular disease associated with sudden death. The most common valve disease causing sudden death is aoic stenosis. In children subvalvular and supravalvular aoic stenosis may cause sudden death whereas in adults both congenitally bicuspid and trileaflet valves are the cause. Aoic stenosis accounts for approximately 2 percent of sudden death in adults' The classic symptoms of the valvular type of aoic stenosis (regardless of type) include external dyspnoea, syncope, angina, and sudden cardiac death. The onset of symptoms is an ominous sign. The presence of angina does not necessarily indicate coexisting coronary disease; rather, it is related to increased left ventricular filling pressure causing subendocardial ischemia.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Ohopnea in hea failure develops due to:
|
[
"Reservoir function of pulmonary veins",
"Reservoir function of leg veins",
"Reservoir function of pulmonary aeries",
"Reservoir function of leg aeries"
] |
Explanation:
Ohopnea is shoness of breath that occurs when a person is supine. Gravitational forces cause fluid to become sequestrated in the lower legs and feet when the person is standing or sitting. When the person assumes a recumbent position fluid from the legs (leg veins) and dependent pas of the body is mobilized and redistributed to an already distended pulmonary circulation. Ref: Hea failure: a clinician's guide to ambulatory diagnosis and treatment By Mariell L. Jessup, Evan Loh, Page 28
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is
|
[
"Protoplasmic",
"Pilocytic",
"Gemistocytic",
"Fibrous"
] |
Explanation:
Pilocytic means that the tumor cells are hair like. pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common type Refer khurana 6/e 410
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A cranial nerves carrying the pain sensations from tip of tongue is?
|
[
"VI",
"V2",
"V3",
"VII"
] |
Explanation:
V3
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Specific plaque hypothesis was put forward by:
|
[
"Jenco",
"Listgarten",
"Loesche",
"None of the above"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Mifepristone (RU–486) is:
|
[
"Anti–androgen",
"Anti–estrogen",
"Anti–progestin",
"Androgen"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
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